Who is my "brother" in Christ?

[eis]

2 Timothy 3:16-17

16 All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness:

17 That the man of God may be perfect, throughly furnished unto all good works.

KJV

I guess that means ALL Scripture is doctrinal.

[eis]

And he went into all the region around the Jordan, preaching a baptism of repentance for the remission of sins,

Jesus was baptized by John "as was the custom".

Matthew 3:13-17

13 Then Jesus arrived from Galilee at the Jordan coming to John, to be baptized by him. 14 But John tried to prevent Him, saying, "I have need to be baptized by You, and do You come to me?" 15 But Jesus answering said to him, "Permit it at this time; for in this way it is fitting for us to fulfill all righteousness." Then he permitted Him. 16 And after being baptized, Jesus went up immediately from the water; and behold, the heavens were opened, and he saw the Spirit of God descending as a dove, and coming upon Him, 17 and behold, a voice out of the heavens, saying, "This is My beloved Son, in whom I am well-pleased."

NASB

Two things here, Jesus was "in the water" because he came up immediately from the water. Immersion is indicated. And, Jesus was baptized to fulfill all righteousness.

There is NO place in Scripture where babies(infants) were baptized. It is not a valid approach.

[eis]

What is the difference between water baptism as John baptized and the baptism that we have in Christ?

If the baptism of John was for the remission of sins - What do we have in Christ? Are we then to continue to follow the baptism of John or do we take the words of Jesus, Himself, on the cross, "It is finished." for eternity - nothing to be added or taken away. Once for all mankind, not some vain repetition. - or was He speaking of His death and resurrection on the cross and tomb? If so and He did it so that we would not need to since He was the spotless lamb and we can "never" be - was His sacrifice not sufficient - that it needs to be recreated by man as a symbol of a life given to Christ? Did He not say, " by their fruits you shall know them". Are our lives not an example of our acceptance of His sacrifice for us?

" Are our lives not an example of our acceptance of His sacrifice for us?" Our lives as an example are to be expected, but have nothing to do with enetring into His saving grace.

When Jesus said "It is finished." that did not mean, that man had nothing to do forward or backward. It signified that the plan that had been to redeem man was finished. No other sacrifice would be needed. It also signified that his earthly mission in his fleshly form was done.

One more time in the style used by shiloh357,

"I agree there is NO ACT (or work) that we can do to EARN our salvation!"

However, there are things we do to come into His saving grace and it is not complete until we are baptized into Him. Even belief is a work if not why did Jesus indicate such here,

John 6:26 "Truly, truly, I say to you, you seek Me, not because you saw signs, but because you ate of the loaves, and were filled. 27 "Do not work for the food which perishes, but for the food which endures to eternal life, which the Son of Man shall give to you, for on Him the Father, even God, has set His seal." 28 They said therefore to Him, "What shall we do, that we may work the works of God?" 29 Jesus answered and said to them, "This is the work of God, that you believe in Him whom He has sent." NASB

You see, even a "work of God" not meaning that God is doing the work, but that believing is a work and of the type that it is a work of God (see the end of verse 28). So all this humma humma about works and baptism being a work is for naught. As long as the command to "preach and baptize" is there and "repent and be baptized for the remission(forgiveness) of sins" are in the Scripture, it is not enough to say have faith only.

Edited April 12, 2010 by eis

[OneLight]

However, there are things we do to come into His saving grace and it is not complete until we are baptized into Him. Even belief is a work if not why did Jesus indicate such here.

Where do you read in scripture that baptism completes salvation?

[eis]

However, there are things we do to come into His saving grace and it is not complete until we are baptized into Him. Even belief is a work if not why did Jesus indicate such here.

Where do you read in scripture that baptism completes salvation?

I don't. But if you can't be saved without it and everything else is there then...

[OneLight]

However, there are things we do to come into His saving grace and it is not complete until we are baptized into Him. Even belief is a work if not why did Jesus indicate such here.

Where do you read in scripture that baptism completes salvation?

I don't. But if you can't be saved without it and everything else is there then...

then ... you are reading into scripture that which is not there?

[Littlelambseativy]

eis

When Jesus said, 'It is finished.' He not only completed the act of salvation-Once for all but also defeated death and went to hell to show Himself to the devils and fallen angels that are chained. He however did it all. If there was something, anything that we have to do to attain salvation then He lied when He said to the Father, 'It is finished.'

Since Jesus is the Son of the One and Only Living God He could not lie. It is done.

You cannot add one jot or tittle to the words in the Bible. It is done.

[Guest shiloh357]

2 Timothy 3:16-17

16 All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness:

17 That the man of God may be perfect, throughly furnished unto all good works.

KJV

I guess that means ALL Scripture is doctrinal.

Paul is making a general statement about Scripture, which is true. Not every Scripture is "doctrine." What it does not mean is that every verse fits every description Paul enumerates above. For example, the words of Satan are recorded in the Bible. Are you going to say that we can create Christian doctrine out of the verses of the Bible where Satan is speaking?

[eis]

eis

When Jesus said, 'It is finished.' He not only completed the act of salvation-Once for all but also defeated death and went to hell to show Himself to the devils and fallen angels that are chained. He however did it all. If there was something, anything that we have to do to attain salvation then He lied when He said to the Father, 'It is finished.'

Since Jesus is the Son of the One and Only Living God He could not lie. It is done.

You cannot add one jot or tittle to the words in the Bible. It is done.

I would agree but that's not what "It is finished" means or indicates.

[eis]

2 Timothy 3:16-17

16 All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness:

17 That the man of God may be perfect, throughly furnished unto all good works.

KJV

I guess that means ALL Scripture is doctrinal.

Paul is making a general statement about Scripture, which is true. Not every Scripture is "doctrine." What it does not mean is that every verse fits every description Paul enumerates above. For example, the words of Satan are recorded in the Bible. Are you going to say that we can create Christian doctrine out of the verses of the Bible where Satan is speaking?

Doctrine? Regarding Satan, no, yet the lessons learned how Christ dealt with him is of importance in our response to the same Satan.

Aside for reproof & instruction in righteousness, it says " All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine"...was Paul in error? Or are you saying the combination of the three is the use of "All Scripture" as part of the whole? If so how about "repent and be baptized" being part of the whole?