All scripture

[Guest agua]

x

[Guest man]

No.

[Openly Curious]

2Ti 3:15-17 KJV

(15) And that from a child thou hast known the holy scriptures, which are able to make thee wise unto salvation through faith which is in Christ Jesus.

(16) All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness:

(17) That the man of God may be perfect, throughly furnished unto all good works.

Does this refer to only the OT?

The sripture in Timothy vs. 16) says, that "ALL" scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for "doctrine, reproof, correction, instruction in righteousness. So that the people of God from the words of truth will go on to maturity and take on the work of the ministry.

You, ask does this refer to ony the OT? What it comes down to, is do you, consider the OT and the NT sripture are they the inerrant word of God. All scripture is given that means from Genesis to Revelation if you believe all is inspired or not.

Acts 20:26-27 Wherefore I take you to record this day, that I am pure from the blood of all men. For I have not "shunned" to declare unto you "all" the counsel of God.

2 Timothy 4:2 Preach the word; be instance in season, out of season; reprove, rebuke, exhort with all longsuffering and doctrine. For we are to preach the whole counsel of the word of God.

[Guest man]

2 Peter 3:16 makes reference to Paul's epistles being twisted along with the rest of the scriptures.

"The rest of the scriptures" implies that Paul's writings are scripture.

[Botz]

2Ti 3:15-17 KJV

(15) And that from a child thou hast known the holy scriptures, which are able to make thee wise unto salvation through faith which is in Christ Jesus.

(16) All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness:

(17) That the man of God may be perfect, throughly furnished unto all good works.

Does this refer to only the OT?

Hi Aqua.....That is an interesting question!

In view of the fact that at this point in time the New Covenant writings had not been correlated, and that it took approximately 400 years for the Canon of the New Covenant to be widely accepted by the developing Church, the answer to your somewhat rhetorical question has to be a resounding Yes!

This throws up some significant thoughts though, especially concerning the way in which the Old Covenant contains all the relevant information for a person, especially a Jewish person, to come to faith in the Messiah.

For a time frame, tradition places Paul's death by beheading at around 65 AD. Most of us are aware that historically the letters of Paul and other leaders were copied and passed around the Churches, because much of what was in one letter was significant to all emerging congregations and carried the authority of their tried and tested leadership.

If you look back in the Old Covenant, and read for example Psalm 119, where every verse extols the Law/testimony/statutes of G-d, at that time the writings with Scriptural authority might only be considered the Torah...the five books of Moses...thus asking oneself the question, how and when and by what authority did the other books get added, who correlated them etc...etc... as it expanded from a mere 5 books to ultimately consist of 39?

[mizzdy]

2Ti 3:15-17 KJV

(15) And that from a child thou hast known the holy scriptures, which are able to make thee wise unto salvation through faith which is in Christ Jesus.

(16) All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness:

(17) That the man of God may be perfect, throughly furnished unto all good works.

Does this refer to only the OT?

As Botz pointed out there was no canon or collection of any of the apostles writings were available at that time, so yes he was refering to the scriptures they did have collected and of those taught in the synagogues. It was rather an expensive thing to have a copy of a letter or scroll and while the letters of the apostles may have been circulated it may not have been widely done due to costs etc. So basically yes it was the OT this verse is refering to.

[UncleAbee]

Let's look at 2 Tim 3:16 in context. 2 Tim 3:14-16 - "14You, however, continue in the things you have learned and become convinced of, knowing from whom you have learned them,

15and that from childhood you have known the sacred writings which are able to give you the wisdom that leads to salvation through faith which is in Christ Jesus.

16All Scripture is inspired by God and profitable for teaching, for reproof, for correction, for training in righteousness;"

In vs 14 - 15 Paul talks to Timothy about things he learned from childhood. These things were not the NT. They are the OT writings. Therefore I believe at the time Paul gave the writing he was referring to the OT scripture. Paul was telling Timothy that all the scriptures he had studied and read were given by God. Today, we extend this writing to the NT though because we believe it is inspired as well. I believe this is the correct way to understand and practice this scripture. 1 Tim 3:16 fits the NT scripture even though Paul was not specifically talking about NT scripture.

[logos7]

25) But the Word of the Lord endureth for ever. And this is the Word which by the Gospel is preached unto you.

1) Wherefore laying aside all malice, and all guile, and hypocrisies, and envies, and all evil speakings,

2) As newborn babes, desire the sincere milk of the Word, that ye may grow thereby:

3) If so be ye have tasted that the Lord is gracious.

I Peter 1:25-2:3

Also as man stated

15) And account that the longsuffering of our Lord is salvation; even as our beloved brother Paul also according to the wisdom given unto Him hath written unto you.

16)As also in all his epistles, speaking in them of these things; in which are some things hard to be understood, which they that are unlearned and unstable wrest, as they do also the other scriptures, unto their own destruction.

II Peter 3:15-16

[Botz]

2Ti 3:15-17 KJV

(15) And that from a child thou hast known the holy scriptures, which are able to make thee wise unto salvation through faith which is in Christ Jesus.

(16) All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness:

(17) That the man of God may be perfect, throughly furnished unto all good works.

Does this refer to only the OT?

As Botz pointed out there was no canon or collection of any of the apostles writings were available at that time, so yes he was refering to the scriptures they did have collected and of those taught in the synagogues. It was rather an expensive thing to have a copy of a letter or scroll and while the letters of the apostles may have been circulated it may not have been widely done due to costs etc. So basically yes it was the OT this verse is refering to.

This was spoken while under the inspiration of God, and it was refering to all scripture that already existed, and all that would become part of the cannon of scripture. It applies to all 66 books that make up the Bible.

I agree that it encompasses everything that would be known as Scripture, and that is a good point, but obviously in the case of referring to what Timothy had been taught, it could only have been from the Tenach.

It is interesting to note that the whole thrust of Scripture is to equip every individual to live life to the full through knowing the One True G-d....and ultimately to produce works to His glory.

[Rick-Parker]

God knew that the writings of the NT would be part of the total Scripture. That is why the Holy Spirit guided the writing of the Apostles to say what they did, knowing full well that "all Scripture" would be used and be "profitable." The verses apply to both the Old and New Testaments.