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Adultery Exception?


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So my friend tells me that his ex wife cheated first and then he cheated on her, now they are divorced 5 years. Does he fall under the exception Jesus gave. Even tho he cheated after?

Thank you.

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Two wrongs don't make a right.  If he cheated on his wife while they were still married, he is as guilty as she is.

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Optimally, he and she should try to reconcile of course!

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It's highly unlikely.

Biblically speaking does he fall under the exception?

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Optimally, he and she should try to reconcile of course!

It's highly unlikely.

Biblically speaking does he fall under the exception

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Guest Teditis

I think he has the right to divorce under the exception... not sure about the remarriage part though?

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So my friend tells me that his ex wife cheated first and then he cheated on her, now they are divorced 5 years. Does he fall under the exception Jesus gave. Even tho he cheated after?

Thank you.

 

 

I am assuming they were both married at the time when the cheating happened.

 

A man must write a bill of divorcement and hand it to the wife. If He lays with another women while married to someone, then He has committed adultery against his wife whom He is still married to.

 

So, your friend has committed adultery as the wife had no bill of divorcement. 

 

Jesus talked about "putting away" and taking someone else. This was an act to keep control over a women, and take another women. God said if the man find anything unclean in her, He must write her a bill of divorcement before taking another wife. Without that bill, she was not considered free and property of someone else. She could even be stoned for it without the proof of the divorce.

 

 

 

I think he has the right to divorce under the exception... not sure about the remarriage part though?

 

Let me help you.

 

When a man hath taken a wife, and married her, and it come to pass that she find no favour in his eyes, because he hath found some uncleanness in her: then let him write her a bill of divorcement, and give it in her hand, and send her out of his house. And when she is departed out of his house, she may go and be another man's wife. And if the latter husband hate her, and write her a bill of divorcement, and giveth it in her hand, and sendeth her out of his house; or if the latter husband die, which took her to be his wife; Her former husband, which sent her away, may not take her again to be his wife, after that she is defiled; for that is abomination before the LORD: and thou shalt not cause the land to sin, which the LORD thy God giveth thee for an inheritance. 
(Deu 24:1-4)
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technically they are both guilty of adultery and should be stoned under the first covenant, along with the people they cheated with.  Thank goodness we are no longer expecting that covenant to get us to heaven......     they need to take it to God in Prayer and ask him for direction.

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So my friend tells me that his ex wife cheated first and then he cheated on her, now they are divorced 5 years. Does he fall under the exception Jesus gave. Even tho he cheated after?

Thank you.

I am assuming they were both married at the time when the cheating happened.

A man must write a bill of divorcement and hand it to the wife. If He lays with another women while married to someone, then He has committed adultery against his wife whom He is still married to.

So, your friend has committed adultery as the wife had no bill of divorcement.

Jesus talked about "putting away" and taking someone else. This was an act to keep control over a women, and take another women. God said if the man find anything unclean in her, He must write her a bill of divorcement before taking another wife. Without that bill, she was not considered free and property of someone else. She could even be stoned for it without the proof of the divorce.

Would he be able to remarry?

Edited by DearJudy,OurLord
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So my friend tells me that his ex wife cheated first and then he cheated on her, now they are divorced 5 years. Does he fall under the exception Jesus gave. Even tho he cheated after?

Thank you.

 

What do you mean - he cheated on her?

If he slept with somebody else, he committed adultery.

Even if he and his wife divorced first, he committed adultery with another woman UNLESS he married the second woman. you never mentioned whether he married the second woman or not.

You're asking if he falls under the exception. What exception? Are you suggesting that it is okay to sleep with somebody as long as you're not married to somebody else?

Even if his first marriage became effectively null and void, it doesn't give him license to sleep around.

Nobody appears to have asked whether he married the second woman or not. They seem to be concentrating on whether he divorced his first wife first.

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