What kind of Body did Jesus have after His resurrection ?

[inchrist]

Edit: doube post

Edited January 8, 2018 by inchrist

[Guest shiloh357]

44 minutes ago, inchrist said:

I dont see ANYWHERE in scripture  satan said the following

“If God is not gracious, then you’d better become your own god and take care of yourself. Have your own way

Satan stated ONE lie

You will not certainly die," the serpent said to the woman.

Out of the one lie we can insert a number of meanings to the lie to its broader implications, but he only stated ONE lie. 

 

The link explains everything.  But that link contains sound biblical spirit-filled teaching.  Something you are allergic to.

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No that is called scripture

Now if we are children, then we are heirs--heirs of God and co-heirs with Christ, if indeed we share in his sufferings in order that we may also share in his glory (deity)

 

No, sharing in His glory isn't sharing in His deity.  

Here is what the Bible actually says:  "The Spirit itself beareth witness with our spirit, that we are the children of God: And if children, then heirs; heirs of God, and joint-heirs with Christ; if so be that we suffer with him, that we may be also glorified together.  (Rom 8:16-17)   It doesn't say that we will share the same kind of glory that He has and and "glory" isn't deity.    That is an attempt by you to twist the Bible into your satanic theology.  

We will be "glorified" but the word for glory in the Greek means "honor." We will be honored, but we will not made into deity.  

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Intelligent people would know im not equating to Gods essence

yes you are.   You say that we will share in his divinity.   You have been equating divine nature with divinity and saying that we will share in His deity.   You really not intellectually capable of being in conversation like this when you can't even get the terminology right. 

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Nope Christ was directly quoting all of this I say, 'You are gods; you are all children (Son of God/sons of God) of the Most High

Jesus was quoting God the Father to the unjust judges.  He was using the word "elohim" to refer to human judges not deified beings.   Anyone competent in the Scriptures understands that Hebrew words often have more than one usage.

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Thats a delusional opinion not a scriptural rebuttal

No, it is a proper assessment of your incompetence and lack of intellectual fitness to interpret Scripture.

Edited January 8, 2018 by shiloh357

[inchrist]

10 minutes ago, shiloh357 said:

The link explains everything.  But that link contains sound biblical spirit-filled teaching.  Something you are allergic to.

 

How can it when scripture shows satan stating ONE lie?

That link deserves the gabage can.

 No, sharing in His glory isn't sharing in His deity

Just like scripture shows satan only telling one lie, we also see scripture showing we co-share deity

Now if we are children, then we are heirs--heirs of God and co-heirs with Christ, if indeed we share in his sufferings in order that we may also share in his glory (deity)

......

Through these he has given us his very great and precious promises, so that through them you may participate in the divine nature

Co- Share in the divine nature(deity/glory)

Never states we are pedestrians to deity.

 Jesus was quoting God the Father to the unjust judges

Theos never refers to mortal, unjust judges. If christ wished to state such a thing he could of used kurios

  AND THE SCRIPTURE CANNOT BE BROKEN ! 

Showing the Pharisees knew they didn't believe what Psalm 82:6 really means, just like you,

The word theos is used once in each of these 4 verses  John 10:33-36 and it means the same thing every time.

By claiming to be "the Son of THEOS , Christ was claiming to also be one with theos, which claim the Jews clearly understood. And by stating that the scripture calls other human beings theos, Christ meant that when human beings become "sons of God", then they also become of  "theos" 

In otherwords Christ draws the same conclusion of Psalm 82:6 this is why Christ stated the verse, because the incident is the same equation of that verse.

And as Christ who was a teacher of the law was giving them a lesson on the full potential of man.

 No, it is a proper assessment of your incompetence and lack of intellectual fitness to interpret Scripture

That is now continual delusion, not a scriptural rebuttal

 

 

[inchrist]

11 minutes ago, Davida said:

You cannot correct anyone.

Those who are saved have the same understanding of basic doctrines & basic scripture and you show yourself outside of that basic handling of scripture.  Frankly, you should have been banned a long time ago for trying to spread false teachings.

No sorry, im testing what shiloh was stating to Quasar93

I have every right to test him.... You do not tell me what to do....do you understand me?

Please learn the difference between teacher and student.

Stop bearing false witness

Next time please dont lie to me that "you dont hate me" your actions are false.....like your dispensationalism

Edited January 8, 2018 by inchrist

[Guest shiloh357]

1 minute ago, inchrist said:

How can it when scripture shows satan stating ONE lie?

That link deserves the gabage can.

It's actually pretty good and answers the question.  But Satan hates sound doctrine and so do you.

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Just like scripture shows satan only telling one lie, we also see scripture showing we co-share deity

Now if we are children, then we are heirs--heirs of God and co-heirs with Christ, if indeed we share in his sufferings in order that we may also share in his glory (deity)

 

No, glory is honor, not deity.   And the Bible never says that we will share in His deity.

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Through these he has given us his very great and precious promises, so that through them you may participate in the divine nature

Co- Share in the divine nature(deity/glory)

Never states we are pedestrians to deity.

 

No, we do not share in deity.  Deity is not glory or the divine nature as presented by Peter.

 

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Theos never refers to mortal, unjust judges. If christ wished to state such a thing he could of used kurios

The word elohim refers to judges, angels, false gods, and God Himself.   Theos is used to refer to those unjust judges.

 

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AND THE SCRIPTURE CANNOT BE BROKEN ! 

No one said it could.  But it can be misinterpreted as you do on a regular basis.

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Showing the Pharisees knew they didn't believe what Psalm 82:6 really means, just like you,

No, that is not what he was doing.  They were not arguing over that verse.

 

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The word theos is used once in each of these 4 verses  John 10:33-36 and it means the same thing every time.

It is used in to refer to human judges. I am sorry, but word usage trumps word meaning.

 

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By claiming to be "the Son of THEOS , Christ was claiming to also be one with theos, which claim the Jews clearly understood. And by stating that the scripture calls other human beings theos, Christ meant that when human beings become "sons of God", then they also become of  "theos" 

They understood he was claiming to be God and they picked up stones to kill him for "blasphemy."   Jesus did not correct their understanding, which is why He drew on Psalm 82:6 in order to double down on his claim to be God.

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In otherwords Christ draws the same conclusion of Psalm 82:6 this is why Christ stated the verse, because the incident is the same equation of that verse.

And as Christ who was a teacher of the law was giving them a lesson on the full potential of man.

 

No, He was defending His claim to deity in the face of their accusation that such a claim was blasphemy.

 

[Guest shiloh357]

10 minutes ago, Davida said:

You cannot correct anyone.

Those who are saved have the same understanding of basic doctrines & basic scripture and you show yourself outside of that basic handling of scripture.  Frankly, you should have been banned a long time ago for trying to spread false teachings.

a few years ago, he would have been banned.

[inchrist]

17 minutes ago, shiloh357 said:

It's actually pretty good and answers the question.  But Satan hates sound doctrine and so do you.

 

inventing 4 lies is not what I hold as sound doctrine. However thanks for being honest on your level of "standards" however the biblical standard is ONE lie. Period. Get over it now.

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No, glory is honor, not deity.   And the Bible never says that we will share in His deity.

yes it does....because it is divine glory, of that condition with God the Father in heaven, what is the condition of God? Divine: NO? Yes? I dont know?

The glory of God is the divine of God. Basic stuff.

Now if we are children, then we are heirs--heirs of God and co-heirs with Christ, if indeed we share in his sufferings in order that we may also share in his glory. (participate/share in the divine nature)

IT states right there we are sharers in divine nature.....sharers. 

Divine nature = theios = divine/diety

Thayer's Greek Lexicon

divinity, deity 

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No, we do not share in deity.  Deity is not glory or the divine nature as presented by Peter.

blasphemous

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No, that is not what he was doing.  They were not arguing over that verse.

I didnt state they were arguing about the verse. Please stop twisting what Im saying. But lets not pretend they didnt know about the verse.

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It is used in to refer to human judges. I am sorry, but word usage trumps word meaning.

and context trumps your word usage, would you like to go through john step by step?

 

 

[inchrist]

34 minutes ago, shiloh357 said:

a few years ago, he would have been banned.

I love they way you guys think you own this site.

[inchrist]

57 minutes ago, Davida said:

You show that you are unteachable!

and you show you are too personal

[inchrist]

7 minutes ago, Davida said:

You are obviously a youth that thinks they have something to prove- Here's advice-take it - find true salvation first.

No im just sick and tired of your little group continuously branding everyone a false teacher who disagrees with you. Enough is enough.