Question about John 6:29

[Dennis1209]

23 hours ago, Still Alive said:

I understand there is no equivalent to a comma in Greek, so we get to guess based on context. Fortunately, these sorts of scripture are mainly just worth arguing for those that want a definitive answer to the age old question, "how many angels can dance on the head of a pin.

I'll beg to differ. I believe even the punctuation of our translated English Bible (KJV) has been preserved and inspired in translated. Every jot and tittle has meaning and a purpose. For brevity I'll cite only one example of many for the importance of accurate punctuation (jots & tittles if you will). This example translates to about 2,000 years so far. 

Read Isaiah 61: 2 and notice the comma. Then read Luke 4: 16 - 21 and notice the period, and why Jesus stopped at the period and did not finish Isaiah 61: 2. It was yet for a future generation and time. They were perplexed at this? 

 

[Dennis1209]

4 minutes ago, Still Alive said:

Meh. That sounds to king jamesey for me to take seriously.

Not to start a Bible translation / version war. But doing my due diligent homework and research, if I were to have only one translation of the Bible, then yes; I'd sound King Jamesey ?

[Still Alive]

7 minutes ago, Dennis1209 said:

I'll beg to differ. I believe even the punctuation of our translated English Bible (KJV) has been preserved and inspired in translated. Every jot and tittle has meaning and a purpose. For brevity I'll cite only one example of many for the importance of accurate punctuation (jots & tittles if you will). This example translates to about 2,000 years so far. 

Read Isaiah 61: 2 and notice the comma. Then read Luke 4: 16 - 21 and notice the period, and why Jesus stopped at the period and did not finish Isaiah 61: 2. It was yet for a future generation and time. They were perplexed at this? 

 

You've opened up a can of worms that is outside the scope of the use of the comma. Luke did not use one because Jesus finished quoting to emphasize the specific point he was making.

My point, in the meantime, is merely to point out that although sometimes a comma is obvious in where it is needed, and other times it is debatable, and changes the meaning. 

[Dennis1209]

3 minutes ago, Still Alive said:

You've opened up a can of worms that is outside the scope of the use of the comma. Luke did not use one because Jesus finished quoting to emphasize the specific point he was making.

My point, in the meantime, is merely to point out that although sometimes a comma is obvious in where it is needed, and other times it is debatable, and changes the meaning. 

And that's my point 

[Guest shiloh357]

On ‎8‎/‎28‎/‎2018 at 1:47 PM, Still Alive said:

I understand there is no equivalent to a comma in Greek, so we get to guess based on context. Fortunately, these sorts of scripture are mainly just worth arguing for those that want a definitive answer to the age old question, "how many angels can dance on the head of a pin.

Yes, there is a comma in Greek and it is just like one in English.   https://www.billmounce.com/greekalphabet/greek-punctuation-syllabification

[Still Alive]

20 minutes ago, Dennis1209 said:

Not to start a Bible translation / version war. But doing my due diligent homework and research, if I were to have only one translation of the Bible, then yes; I'd sound King Jamesey ?

One time in our old "KJV only" church, the pastor read a particularly confusing verse and stopped, and translated to plain English for the congregation. He said, word for word, what was already printed in my wife's NIV bible. 

If I had only one, it would be ESV or NIV. I don't do Shakespeare either. And Shakespeare's no fun in plain English either, come to think of it.

Edited August 29, 2018 by Still Alive

[Dennis1209]

2 minutes ago, Still Alive said:

One time in our old "KJV only" church, the pastor read a particularly confusing verse and stopped, and translated to plain English for the congregation. He said, word for word, what was already printed in my wife's NIV bible. 

If I had only one, it would be ESV or NIV. I don't do Shakespeare either. And it's no fun in plain English either, come to think of it.

I'm not disparaging other translations, most serious scholars and students use multiple translations. I don't much care for W.S. myself, but I like the classic Old English, it has an appeal to me. 

[Still Alive]

6 minutes ago, shiloh357 said:

Yes, there is a comma in Greek and it is just like one in English.   https://www.billmounce.com/greekalphabet/greek-punctuation-syllabification

Yes, poor choice of words on my part. This covers the point I was trying to make:https://www.gci.org/articles/the-comma-of-luke-2343/

The commas were added after the fact, which makes their very inclusion an interpretation.

[Still Alive]

Just now, Dennis1209 said:

I'm not disparaging other translations, most serious scholars and students use multiple translations. I don't much care for W.S. myself, but I like the classic Old English, it has an appeal to me. 

Looks like we are on the same page then, with the exception that I just don't like the old language because it's not the one I use in day-to-day communication.

[Guest shiloh357]

1 hour ago, Still Alive said:

Yes, poor choice of words on my part. This covers the point I was trying to make:https://www.gci.org/articles/the-comma-of-luke-2343/

The commas were added after the fact, which makes their very inclusion an interpretation.

Based on what the thief said to Jesus, the commas in Jesus response are accurate.  The thief (malefactor) was asking Jesus to "remember" him when He came into His Kingdom.   His request of Jesus was eschatological, which means that this man was likely a religious zealot.   He understood the concept of the coming Messianic kingdom and that is of course looking to the future.   He was acknowledging Jesus as the promised Messiah and was speaking of that future kingdom.  So, it makes sense that Jesus would respond with something better than the man requested.   Jesus wasn't making him wait until thousands of years into the future; rather He says, "today, you will be with me in paradise."

Salvation is always "today."  It is not something we have to wait for.   It would make no sense for Jesus to referring to the Messianic Kingdom as "paradise."   He was granting salvation to the malefactor and promising him that as they both died on the same day, that on that very same day, He would enter into eternity with Jesus.