Those Days Will Be Shortened

[iamlamad]

9 hours ago, childoftheking said:

I use Young's like most Seminary's.   I also use Dakes.   Strong's is still based off the 1611 Bible (olde English)

Young's will show us the same thing: that the very same Greek word, "Ouranos" Mark used for the gathering is also used from the heaven where God lives.  

[iamlamad]

9 hours ago, childoftheking said:

 

It's not the same word, though:

 

Matt 24:31 

οὐρανῶν = of the sky

 

Matt 3:17

οὐρανῶν = of the sky

 

Matt 5:3

ouranō = of paradise

 

Matt 5:34

ouranō = of paradise

 

Matt 5:45

οὐρανοῖς = multiple paradises

 

Mark 13:27

οὐρανοῦ = of the sky

 

You can even tell by the spelling of each word there is a subtle change or meaning to it.   But No, they are ABSOLUTELY NOT the same word or meaning at all!!

The Englishman's concordance shows us that the EXACT word Mark uses is also used for the heaven where God lives.

Mark 13:27 N-GMS
GRK: ἕως ἄκρου οὐρανοῦ 
NAS: to the farthest end of heaven.
KJV: to the uttermost part of heaven.
INT: to [the] extremity of heaven

 

Luke 10:21 N-GMS
GRK: κύριε τοῦ οὐρανοῦ καὶ τῆς
NAS: Lord of heaven and earth,
KJV: O Father, Lord of heaven and earth,
INT: Lord of the heaven and of the

Luke 11:13 N-GMS
GRK: ὁ ἐξ οὐρανοῦ δώσει πνεῦμα
KJV: more shall [your] heavenly Father give
INT: who [is] in heaven will give Spirit

I have never studied Greek. If I am mistaken here, show me. 

As I understand it, each variance is shown with all the verses that use that variance.  This particular spelling or variance is used 92 times. 

[iamlamad]

On 5/3/2019 at 10:07 AM, childoftheking said:

 

I disagree only concerning pre-trib vs post-trib.   God has never went against His own spoken Word and Matthew is His own spoken Word!!

That would be "God has never GONE against His own spoken word."

I agree. But I know our God is big enough to have TWO gatherings, one from earth (Paul's rapture) and another from the far reaches of heaven to the far reaches of earth.

[childoftheking]

6 hours ago, iamlamad said:

Hmmm. I find the law of circumcision on the opposite page in some bibles as the first mention of the tithe.  Yet Paul was sure: if people in the Gentile church insisted on circumcision (because it was law) , then the blood of Jesus would become of no affect: they were then under the obligation of following the WHOLE LAW. 

Could it be today, that if people tithe because they imagine it is law to them, then they are putting themselves under a curse because they are then required to do the ENTIRE law?

As a part of the Gentile church, we must be VERY careful what we pull from the Old TEstament and follow, thinking it is law to us. 

The truth is, the New Testament saint is under sowing and reaping. 

2 Corinthians 9:6

But this I say, He which soweth sparingly shall reap also sparingly; and he which soweth bountifully shall reap also bountifully.

 

The Law served its purpose.  And even though in a sense, it's basically obsolete due to Grace (which is why the Gentiles even have a say in any matter pertaining to Yahweh).   The law still serves as a harsh reminder, that without Grace, we would still be filthy rags.

 

There really is no example of anyone tithing from the Apostles perspective.   But most of the members of the first Church sold what they owned and gave it to the leadership.   Many lived in communal terms.

 

As far as today, paying a building fund, supporting a pastors salary, home, something to drive, should be paid out of the offerings.   People should not be required to pay tithes, but encouraged to give more by way of the offering.

 

 

But concerning the run around you just led me through, it has no bearing whatsoever towards what is pertaining to Tribulation and the Second coming in terms of the Old Testament.   Those are not even in the same ballpark of relationship to the LAW!!

[childoftheking]

7 hours ago, iamlamad said:

So, you are willing to rearrange Revelation to make a theory fit?  If so, your theory will be proven wrong. 

The truth is, it was TIME for the marriage right when John SAID IT or wrote it.  Now you wish to change what John wrote. It is not a wise thing to do!

have you not read of the many people who have been to heaven and returned to tell, how they SAW the preparations for the supper? Tables set, lined up along the river of life, as far as the eye could see! It will take a lot of tables, for the number will be TOO GREAT to number. Not one person, not two people, but MANY have testified of seeing the preparations. the last few have been told the preparations are finished: heaven is only waiting for the Father to tell the Son, it is TIME: go get the Bride!

Since their testimony fits perfectly with the written word, of course I believe them. 

You are right in one small way: the time John gives for the marriage is indeed after the days of tribulation.  The actual days of tribulation will be cut short, but the Beast will still get his 42 months: that is a promise. God does not break promises.  It is written and God does not break His written word. The marriage comes AFTER the "trib" or 70th week, and before Jesus descends. Change this and you are rearranging the book, and there is a warning.

 

 

[childoftheking]

6 hours ago, iamlamad said:

One of your many mistakes is just not believing John. He shows us plainly that the wrath of God  - as in the DAY of His wrath, will begin at the 6th seal. Therefore every trumpet judgment will come with His wrath. And for SURE the vials are filled with His wrath. 

Perhaps you have a different definition of "tribulation" than the rest of the church: it would not surprise me.  Are you teachable?

Not carefully Jesus words:

Matthew 24:29

Immediately after the tribulation of those days shall the sun be darkened, and the moon shall not give her light, and the stars shall fall from heaven, and the powers of the heavens shall be shaken:

Note how Jesus used the words, "The tribulation." Many people today use these two words in the same way. So if we back up in matthew 24 we should get a hint as to what "the tribulation" is. In verse 15, Jesus speaks of the abomination of Desolation. Daniel 12 speaks of the abomination that makes desolate. Daniel 9 does also, speaking of the 70th week. Therefore, in spite of what you have been taught at seminaries, Daniel and Jesus make it clear there is coming in our future an abomination and when those in judea see it, they will flee. We see that fleeing in Rev. 12. Therefore the abomination that will divide the future week is just before Rev. 12:6.

Therefore, the future 70th week is MOST DEFINITELY in Revelation. It begins with the 7th seal and ends with the 7th vial. No amount of doubt on your part will change this truth. Since the DAY of His wrath begins just before the future 70th week, then the ENTIRE WEEK is His wrath. It is also "the tribulation." The days of GT that Jesus spoke of will begin right after the midpoint but get worse after the image and mark are enforced. The beheaded from the days of GT will begin to show up in heaven in chapter 15. So the DAYS of GREAT TRIBULATION according to John start after the warning in Rev. 14 and continue on until God SHORTENS those days by pouring out the vials of His wrath. 

The truth then is that God's wrath will be ALL THROUGH the 70th week or if you chose to call it "the tribulation" His wrath will be all through the tribulation.

Not carefully, when Satan's wrath is at its peak, and the Beast's killing machine is at its peak, THEN God begins pouring out the vials. So the truth is, God's wrath comes at the same time as Satan's wrath.

This is all plainly written and you should already know these things.

Every Jew knows the WRATH of God begins at Armageddon  Sorry, but most "Jews" have never read the New Testament on their own. (Some may have been forced to read it in school.) But they DON'T read Revelation. 

OF COURSE Jesus is angry at Armageddon, but the Father's wrath were in the PREVIOUS vials that are poured out before the week ends.  Therefore I find you in error once again, following tradition or man's theories rather than the written word.

 

 

[childoftheking]

6 hours ago, iamlamad said:

You keep saying what I say is against the written word. Don't say it, PROVE it! show us line upon line where anything I have written is against the prophets. 

I think what you MEAN to say is, what I write is against your theories of what the prophets have said. 

Take for example, the marriage and supper: John tells us the time has come, but in insist on rewriting it to a later time. Why would you do this? It is simple, what is written does not fit your theory! 

My friend, I have a novel idea: throw away your theories and this time form new theories from what is written - exactly!. There is no need to rearrange anything in Revelation. The truth is, the raptured church is ALREADY in heaven in Rev. 19  - there for the marriage  - BEFORE Jesus descends. When did they arrive? That too is simple: the raptured church arrived in heaven just a short time before John saw that great crowd too large to number. Therefore the church will have been in heaven all the way from chapter 7 to chapter 19 - where we come back WITH CHRIST as part of His armies.

 

[childoftheking]

6 hours ago, iamlamad said:

That would be "God has never GONE against His own spoken word."

I agree. But I know our God is big enough to have TWO gatherings, one from earth (Paul's rapture) and another from the far reaches of heaven to the far reaches of earth.

 

[iamlamad]

5 hours ago, childoftheking said:

 

The idea that this is a new teaching is meaningless: PAUL taught it, not in a footnote but in His epistles.

The idea that only English speaking people believe it is also bogus.  I heard this a few months ago, so I sent emails to any Christians I could find all over Africa, different countries. I think I sent out about 50 messages, asking them if they believed in a pretrib rapture versus a posttrib rapture. The answers were pretrib about 90%. I then asked WHY then believed the rapture would be pretrib and they all said, its what the bible teaches.

Do you ever wonder why two different believers, both wanting to know the truth, comes up with a different idea for what the scriptures are actually saying? 

Can you find any scriptural proof that the gathering in Matthew 24 is indeed Paul's rapture. The truth is, there is no proof whatsoever. So people who imagine it IS Paul's rapture will believe Post-trib; those that believe it is NOT Paul's rapture will be pretrib.

In other words, we would call that scripture ambiguous and should not be used in making a decision. It would fall then to OTHER scriptures to determine the truth. We have already discussed one: the marriage and supper. I find you have to rearrange scripture to make posttrib fit.

[iamlamad]

5 hours ago, childoftheking said:

 

video deleted

I guess you cannot use scripture in your argument, so you use paste a video.