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GALATIANS 1:8 WHO IS ACCURSED ?


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12 hours ago, Resurrection Priest said:

BibleGuy keeps repeating, "keep the Torah."  "Keep the Torah."  "Keep the Torah." 

But there has been "a change of the law" under the New Covenant, specifically a change that involves "the priesthood"  (Hebrews 7:12).  

Under the New Covenant the LORD has commanded us to eat "the bread" and drink "the cup" (of Passover) to "show the LORD's death til he comes".   Paul did NOT tell his Gentile converts to be circumcised, so that they could eat sacrificed roast lamb in remembrance of Christ's death. 

The Apostle Paul very clearly said that believers should NOT be circumcised to enter in to covenant with God through Christ.  That is what baptism is for. 

1 Corinthians 6:11  “But you were washed, but you were sanctified, but you were justified in the name of the Lord Jesus and by the Spirit of our God.”

If one is already "justified" at baptism, why go to seek it from a Levite priest at the Jerusalem Temple, where an uncircumcised man could not enter anyway?  Why seek it from a priesthood that has been "changed"?

    1 Corinthians 7:18-20  “Was anyone called while uncircumcised?  Let him not be circumcisedCircumcision is nothing and uncircumcision is nothing, but keeping the commandments of God is what matters.  Let each one remain in the same calling in which he was called.”

If "keeping the commandments of God" (under the New Covenant) has to include circumcision, then Paul was double-speaking.  You can't have it both ways. 

Circumcision is either "nothing" or it's something that "matters". 

When Paul wrote "keeping the commandments of God is what matters", I believe he was simply referring to The Ten Commandments - written by God Himself.  He did say "commandments" - plural. 

 

"But there has been "a change of the law" under the New Covenant, specifically a change that involves "the priesthood"  (Hebrews 7:12).  "

It's not a change....it's a Melchizedek Priest (Jesus) PASSING OVER (not CHANGING) from the Levitical Priesthood rules to the Melchizedek Priesthood rules, because Jesus is not a Levite!

Jesus comes to RESTORE those very Levitical priestly sacrifices (Mal.3:4).  The prophets agree that the SAME LEVITES shall return to sacrifice (Eze.40-47;Jer.33;Is.66;Zec.6;Zec.14).

Moses did NOT lie (Dt.30:1-8).  ALL Torah shall return.  Thus the priesthood has NOT been changed!

 

"Paul did NOT tell his Gentile converts to be circumcised, so that they could eat sacrificed roast lamb in remembrance of Christ's death. "

That's because Torah does not require adult-male-Gentile-convert circumcision.  The ongoing mark is INFANT circumcision (Lev.12:3)....NOT adult circumcision of Gentile converts.

That's why Paul requires ALL TORAH (1Cor.7:19), EXCLUDING adult-male-Gentile-convert circumcision (1Cor.7:19)...because Torah does not even require it.

 

"The Apostle Paul very clearly said that believers should NOT be circumcised to enter in to covenant with God through Christ.  "

Of course.  Torah does not even require such circumcision.

 

"If one is already "justified" at baptism, why go to seek it from a Levite priest at the Jerusalem Temple, where an uncircumcised man could not enter anyway? "

Nobody needs to seek justification from a Levite priest.

 

" Why seek it from a priesthood that has been "changed"?

You've not proven this.  You've not answered by Biblical objections to it.

 

"If "keeping the commandments of God" (under the New Covenant) has to include circumcision, then Paul was double-speaking.  You can't have it both ways. "

NOPE.  The ongoing mark of circumcision in the Torah of Moses does NOT require adult-male-Gentile-convert circumcision.  It's for INFANTS (Lev.12:3).

 

"Circumcision is either "nothing" or it's something that "matters". "

It matters for INFANTS (Lev.12:3), not adult-male-Gentile-converts (1Cor.7:19).

 

"When Paul wrote "keeping the commandments of God is what matters", I believe he was simply referring to The Ten Commandments - written by God Himself.  He did say "commandments" - plural. "

And the 1st of the 10 requires obedience to all the rest of the Torah of Moses!  Otherwise YHVH is NOT your God....

 

blessings...

 

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12 hours ago, Resurrection Priest said:

Galatians 5:6  “For in Christ Jesus neither circumcision nor uncircumcision avails anything, but faith working through love.”

Galatians 6:15 “For in Christ Jesus neither circumcision nor uncircumcision avails anything, but a new creation.”

    Romans 2:26-29  “Therefore, if an uncircumcised man [a Gentile convert to the gospel] keeps the righteous requirements of the law, will not his uncircumcision be counted as circumcision? And will not the physically uncircumcised, if he fulfills the law, judge you who, even with your written code and circumcision, are a transgressor of the law?”

How could one keep the requirements of the TORAH, WITHOUT being circumcised?  (Circumcision was commanded in the Torah, as a sign of covenant with God.)  Something must have changed in the Law - under the New Covenant.

Romans 3:30 “There is one God who will justify the circumcised by faith and the uncircumcised through faith.”

        Both circumcised and uncircumcised are “justified” by faith.

    Colossians 2:11 “In Him [in Christ] you were also circumcised with the circumcision made without hands, by putting off the body of the sins of the flesh, by the circumcision of Christ.”

If a man has "the circumcision of Christ", what need is there to seek physical circumcision by man? 

    Philippians 3:2-3  “Beware of dogs, beware of evil workers, beware of the mutilation! For we are the circumcision, who worship God in the Spirit, rejoice in Christ Jesus, and have no confidence in the flesh,”

 

" Galatians 5:6  “For in Christ Jesus neither circumcision nor uncircumcision avails anything, but faith working through love.” "

Of course.  Adult-male-Gentile-converts need not be circumcised....because Torah does not even require it....so simply focus on FAITH (which is of TORAH, Mt.23:23) and LOVE (which entails TORAH, 1Jn.5:3;Dt.6:5,25).

 

Galatians 6:15 “For in Christ Jesus neither circumcision nor uncircumcision avails anything, but a new creation.”

Of course.  Adult-male-Gentile-converts need not be circumcised....because Torah does not even require it....so simply focus on the NEW CREATION...and we are a new creation in CHRIST (2Cor.5:17) who requires ALL TORAH (Mt.5:19) for ALL disciples of ALL nations (Mt.28:19-20).

 

"  Romans 2:26-29  “Therefore, if an uncircumcised man [a Gentile convert to the gospel] keeps the righteous requirements of the law, will not his uncircumcision be counted as circumcision? And will not the physically uncircumcised, if he fulfills the law, judge you who, even with your written code and circumcision, are a transgressor of the law?”

How could one keep the requirements of the TORAH, WITHOUT being circumcised?"

 

Paul just PROVED that uncircumcised Gentile converts CAN KEEP THE TORAH!  That's what Rom.2:26-29 proves!

After all, The Torah of Moses does not even require adult-male-Gentile-convert circumcision.  Rather, the ongoing mark of circumcision is for INFANTS (Lev.12:3).

 

" Colossians 2:11 “In Him [in Christ] you were also circumcised with the circumcision made without hands, by putting off the body of the sins of the flesh, by the circumcision of Christ.”"

Of course!  Circumcision of the HEART!  That's NOT a new concept! (Dt.10:16;30:6).  And those with circumcised hearts obey TORAH (Dt.30:6-8).

Thus, Col. 2:11 again confirms that physically-uncircumcised adult-male-Gentile-converts CAN BE CIRCUMCISED IN HEART and thus they CAN OBEY ALL TORAH (despite their physical uncircumcision)....how so?  Because Torah does not even require that adult-male-Gentile-converts be circumcised.

And again, Col. 2:11 opposes the FLESH...and the flesh disobeys Torah....so the circumcision of Christ is a TORAH-OBEDIENT circumcision.

And again, Col. 2:11 opposes SIN...and sin is opposed to TORAH (Rom.3:20;7:7;1Jn.3:4)....so the circumcision of Christ is a TORAH-OBEDIENT circumcision.

And again, Col. 2:11 upholds CHRIST who requires all Torah (Mt.5:19)....so the circumcision of Christ is a TORAH-OBEDIENT circumcision.

Again, how so?  Because Torah does not even require that adult-male-Gentile-converts be circumcised.

 

"If a man has "the circumcision of Christ", what need is there to seek physical circumcision by man? "

Of course no need, in general.....although you might want to consider it for the sake of others' misconceptions (e.g., Ac.16:3) so as to be expedient in evangelism.

 

"Philippians 3:2-3  “Beware of dogs, beware of evil workers, beware of the mutilation! For we are the circumcision, who worship God in the Spirit, rejoice in Christ Jesus, and have no confidence in the flesh,”"

Agreed!  We don't earn our position in Christ by a faithless act of physical circumcision.....

Very true.

 

Rather, we worship GOD (who requires all TORAH, Dt. 1:3;5:27-33;etc.)

We worship in the SPIRIT (who testifies we obey TORAH, Heb.10:15-16;Eze.36:27;Rom.8:7+Rom.8:13;Is59:20-21 cited at Rom.11:26-27).

We rejoice in CHRIST (who require all Torah, Mt.5:19 for ALL disciples of ALL nations, Mt.28:19-20).

 

AND, the ongoing mark of circumcision in Torah is INFANT circumcision (Lev.12:3), not adult-male-Gentile-convert circumcision.

 

blessings...

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44 minutes ago, BibleGuy said:

You might want to actually compare Ex. 12:43 with Is.56:3-7....thus proving that the instructions in Ex.12 are CONTEXT-SPECIFIC and they are NOT all applicable to all subsequent Pesach celebrations.

That's why Paul can COMMAND Pesach (1Cor.5:7-8) while NOT requiring that those Corinthians be circumcised (1Cor.7:19)....because the ONGOING mark of circumcision is INFANT circumcision (Lev.12:3)....NOT adult-male-Gentile-convert circumcision.

Now you're cherry picking. Let's follow your logic. You're saying that Gentiles are required to keep the Passover. And that they fulfill the circumcision requirement because they were circumcised as infants. Gee, see any flaw in that logic? Duh?!

Furthermore, seeing as you think the Law of Moses can be tinkered with and still be regarded as the Law of Moses, then according to Paul Sabbath keeping is no longer a requirement seeing as he said, "One man considers one day more sacred than another; another man considers every day alike. Each one should be fully convinced in his own mind. He who regards one day as special, does so to the Lord. He who eats meat, eats to the Lord, for he gives thanks to God; and he who abstains, does so to the Lord and gives thanks to God." Rom 14:5,6 and "Let no one judge you in food or in drink, or regarding a festival or a new moon or sabbaths, which are a shadow of things to come, but the substance is of Christ." Col 2:16,17

Furthermore it appears that you're saying that a Gentile must become a Jew to be a Christian.

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2 hours ago, bcbsr said:

Now you're cherry picking. Let's follow your logic. You're saying that Gentiles are required to keep the Passover. And that they fulfill the circumcision requirement because they were circumcised as infants. Gee, see any flaw in that logic? Duh?!

Furthermore, seeing as you think the Law of Moses can be tinkered with and still be regarded as the Law of Moses, then according to Paul Sabbath keeping is no longer a requirement seeing as he said, "One man considers one day more sacred than another; another man considers every day alike. Each one should be fully convinced in his own mind. He who regards one day as special, does so to the Lord. He who eats meat, eats to the Lord, for he gives thanks to God; and he who abstains, does so to the Lord and gives thanks to God." Rom 14:5,6 and "Let no one judge you in food or in drink, or regarding a festival or a new moon or sabbaths, which are a shadow of things to come, but the substance is of Christ." Col 2:16,17

Furthermore it appears that you're saying that a Gentile must become a Jew to be a Christian.

" You're saying that Gentiles are required to keep the Passover. And that they fulfill the circumcision requirement because they were circumcised as infants. Gee, see any flaw in that logic? "

I never said adult-male-Gentile converts were circumcised as infants.

Gentile converts should circumcise their sons on the eight day, though, to the extent possible in this present diaspora.....after all, Lev.12:3 is not terminated.

So, you don't understand my position.

Try again.

 

"seeing as you think the Law of Moses can be tinkered with and still be regarded as the Law of Moses"

No tinkering.  Just FACTS.

Foreigners are EXCLUDED in Ex.12, but INCLUDED in Is.56.

That's not tinkering.

 

"according to Paul Sabbath keeping is no longer a requirement"

Wrong.  Paul condoned a vow to prove he walks "orderly according to the law" (Ac.21).  YOU should imitate that Torah-obedient model (1Cor.11:1;Php.4:9).

Paul requires all Torah (2Ti.3:16).

Paul requires all Torah (1Cor.7:19).

STOP SINNING (1Cor.15:34) means OBEY TORAH (given Rom.3:20;7:7).

Paul says we are justified by Torah (Rom.2:13).

Paul NEVER opposed Sabbath.

 

""One man considers one day more sacred than another; another man considers every day alike. Each one should be fully convinced in his own mind."

Sure!  Some people think Sabbath is more than sacred than other days....

Other people think Sabbath is equally sacred as other days...

Either way, Sabbath is not abolished!

After all, Paul (IN THE SAME PASSAGE) upholds FAITH (Rom.14:23), and FAITH (for Paul) is TORAH-OBEDIENT faith (citing Dt. 30:14 at Rom.10:8).

Again, Paul just told us that he STILL SERVES TORAH (Rom.7:25)...so Paul is not opposing Torah in Rom.14.

Again, Paul just told us that the Spirit opposes Torah-disobedience (Rom.8:7+Rom.8:13), so Paul is not opposing Torah in Rom.14.

Again, Paul just told us that the New Covenant includes Torah being obeyed "from now and forever" (citing Is.59:20-21 at Rom.11:26-27); so Paul is not opposing Torah in Rom.14.

Again, Paul told us to NOT SIN (Rom.6:15), meaning OBEY TORAH (given Rom.3:20;7:7).

 

" "Let no one judge you in food or in drink, or regarding a festival or a new moon or sabbaths, which are a shadow of things to come, but the substance is of Christ." Col 2:16,17"

Exactly!

Do NOT judge my observance of Sabbath (in accordance with Jesus' command, Mt.5:19).

AND, the sabbath is an ONGOING SHADOW (PRESENT tense in Col.2:17, also in Heb.10:1).

The shadow CONTINUES.

And, Col. 2:16-17 upholds CHRIST who requires all TORAH (Mt.5:19), thus including Sabbath.

Agreed!

 

"Furthermore it appears that you're saying that a Gentile must become a Jew to be a Christian."

Paul already told us that believing Gentiles ARE ISRAELITES (citing Hos.1 a Rom.11:26-27).

Believing Gentiles are NOT EXCLUDED from Israel (Eph.2:12); and Israelites obey TORAH (Mal.4:4;Jer.31:33;Heb.8:10;10:16).

Believing Gentiles are not excluded from the covenants (Eph.2:12) which are given as TORAH (e.g., Jer.31:33;Heb.8:10).

Paul says the Gentile-inclusive Roman congregation partakes in the New Covenant (1Cor.11) which is between God and ISRAEL; thus Paul identifies believing Gentiles as fellow ISRAELITES; and Israelites obey TORAH (Mal.4:4;Jer.31:33;Heb.8:10).

So, believing Gentiles do not need to become "JEWS"...because they are already accepted as FELLOW ISRAELITE HEIRS (Eph.3:16), who jointly share in the land-inheritance (Gal.3:29) promised to us as Israelites.

And we will again obey 100% of ALL Torah when we inherit the land (Dt.30:1-8).  Moses did not lie.

 

blessings...

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1 hour ago, BibleGuy said:

Paul says we are justified by Torah (Rom.2:13).

There you made a serious error in interpretation. Yes in Romans 2 Paul is talking about justification by the law. What you fail to realize is that in chapter 3 he concludes that justification by the law is futile. 

Rom 3:20-24 Therefore no one will be declared righteous in his sight by observing the law; rather, through the law we become conscious of sin. But now a righteousness from God, apart from law, has been made known, to which the Law and the Prophets testify.  This righteousness from God comes through faith in Jesus Christ to all who believe. There is no difference,  for all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God,  and are justified freely by his grace through the redemption that came by Christ Jesus.

You have just proven that you are a Judaizer preaching justification by the law, which is the very thing that Paul so vehemently opposed. 

And, "All who rely on observing the law are under a curse, for it is written: "Cursed is everyone who does not continue to do everything written in the Book of the Law." Clearly no one is justified before God by the law, because, "The righteous will live by faith."" Gal 3:10,11 

1 hour ago, BibleGuy said:

 

" "Let no one judge you in food or in drink, or regarding a festival or a new moon or sabbaths, which are a shadow of things to come, but the substance is of Christ." Col 2:16,17"

Exactly!

Do NOT judge my observance of Sabbath (in accordance with Jesus' command, Mt.5:19).

Yet you judge others regarding the Sabbath. 

Concerning the Law, "The law was our tutor to bring us to Christ, that we might be justified by faith. But after faith has come, we are no longer under a tutor." Gal 3:24,25

Of Christians he writes, "you are not under law but under grace." Rom 6:14

In Gal 5:1 he says, "Stand fast therefore in the liberty by which Christ has made us free, and do not be entangled again with a yoke of bondage."

Ga 5:3  And I testify again to every man who becomes circumcised that he is a debtor to keep the whole law.

Yet you insist that Christians must keep the whole law. You are the very kind of person that Paul is arguing against in Galatians.

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4 hours ago, bcbsr said:

according to Paul Sabbath keeping is no longer a requirement seeing as he said, "One man considers one day more sacred than another; another man considers every day alike. Each one should be fully convinced in his own mind. He who regards one day as special, does so to the Lord. He who eats meat, eats to the Lord, for he gives thanks to God; and he who abstains, does so to the Lord and gives thanks to God." Rom 14:5,6 and "Let no one judge you in food or in drink, or regarding a festival or a new moon or sabbaths, which are a shadow of things to come, but the substance is of Christ." Col 2:16,17

I rest on the 7th Day each week. 

In my Bible, the LORD called that day "holy" at the end of creation week.  (That was a whopping long way before Mount Sinai.  That was before sin.)  The word translated as "holy" means "belonging to the LORD".  He declared that day - HIS day.  I can't find any place where HE removed the "holy" status of that day, or declared any other day "holy".   

When Yeshua said "the Son of Man is LORD even of the Sabbath Day", He was claiming to be the LORD who created everything, the One who that day "holy".   The Sabbath is HIS HOLY DAY. 

At Sinai the LORD just told Israel to "remember". 

In Romans 14:1-6  Paul starts out talking about eating meat vs only vegetables.  That was because all the "meat" in the markets had first been presented to pagan idols, before being offered for sale.  The Jerusalem council had warned against eating "things offered to idols".  Paul thought the more mature would realize that idols of stone could not change the food.  As for special days, Paul may be talking about fasting days.  "The Pharisees fast often"  (Matt 9:14, Mk 2:18). 

"Let no one judge you in food [meat offerings] or in drink [drink offerings], or regarding a festival or a new moon or sabbaths, which are a shadow of things to come, but the substance is of Christ." Col 2:16,17

Meat offerings and drink offerings were part of each sacrifice at the Temple.  Paul may be telling believers not to allow the Pharisees to "judge them" regarding how they commemorated the Feasts.  Paul calls those Feasts "shadows" pointing to Christ and what He would do.  There was no need for believers of Paul's day to travel to Jerusalem to offer sacrifices.   I personally believe the sacrifice of animals was rendered "obsolete" with the death of Messiah. 

I do personally commemorate the Feast days.  I eat unleavened bread during Passover week.  I refrain from work on those days.  Even Paul said, "Christ our Passover was slain for us."  "Therefore let us keep the Feast." (ICor 5:7-8).   What "Feast" would Paul have been talking about - in context?  Obviously the Passover. 

Isaiah puts the Sabbath in the New Earth.  That's future.

Isaiah 66:22 "For just as the new heavens and the new earth I am about to make will remain standing before me," says the LORD, "so your descendants and your name will remain. 23 From one month to the next and from one Sabbath to the next, all people will come to worship me," says the LORD.   (NET)

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On 12/4/2019 at 2:57 PM, douge said:



Peter and Paul were not preaching the same gospel. Peter was preaching the gospel of the Davidic kingdom on earth to Israel. Paul was preaching that all were freely justified by the redemption of Christ.

Peter and Paul had seperate ministries; Peter was sent to the circumcision (the Jews), and Paul was sent to the uncircumcision (the Gentiles).

 

Here is what you are missing....

No matter who is being preached to, Jew, or Gentile, following the resurrection of Christ........All are the same.  They are all just sinners in need of Salvation.

The Gospel, is not a divided message.  It is one message.  It is the message of the Cross.

The preaching of the Cross, "is the power of God, UNTO Salvation" "both for the jew and gentile".   So, there is one Gospel, one Savior, and one message. = ONE.

Its This....."JESUS SAVES".

There is no other message. There is no other way, as Jesus is THE WAY...to God, John 14: 6..... and there is no 2nd part, or jewish part, or any other part.

Its one Savior dying on ONE Cross, and this is the ONLY Message that when  preached allows the hearer to BELIEVE ON CHRIST.

So, your issue, is that you have not understood that Paul had the "good news" and Peter had "repent and be Baptized".

Paul had the Gospel of Grace, and Peter had John the Baptist's message to Jews...  (Act 2:38)

But this changed.  Revelation came to all the Apostles...... It changed for Peter when Peter was shown the Gospel of the Grace of God, in Acts 10, by God, and as he continued to Mature regarding revelation, and after Paul came online and began the ministry ("time of the Gentiles"), (and Paul is the apostle to the Gentiles)......Peter along with all the rest of the Apostles,  eventually came to understand THE Gospel....which is the same as we preach it now.  "justification by faith", alone. "The gift of Righteousness". "not by  our works of righteousness,  but only by God's mercy we are saved". = GRACE.  The Gospel of the GRACE OF GOD.  This is the "preaching of the CROSS".

 What many believers don't know, because they have been taught..... is that all the doctrinal knowledge that we have now....looking back 2000 years into the completed New Testament....... The apostles all came to this same knowledge of "grace through faith" also......but not all at the same time.

Paul had this "Grace of God" revelation, because Jesus gave it to him first, and Peter got it at some point after Acts 10, which is at least 10 yrs after Christ ascended back into Heaven.

 

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Yup---the transition for those apostles being Jews was not an easy one and it was slow.

In the early years, the Church was closely tied to the synagogue system and indeed much of the structure that Paul set up for local assemblies came in large part from the synagogue system. This all worked really well because there were synagogues in every city, so it served the Lord for the spreading of the Gospel.

In the early years, Rome still considered Christianity a Jewish sect and tolerated it.

At a point the Lord stepped in and busted that relationship to pieces ultimately severing Moses from Christ. Law from Grace. And so the story goes.

The enemy would seek to reverse that. Of all of the heresies, the most insidious are those that try to put mans efforts at the fore. This appeals to the natural man. "Oh, that Ishmael might live"--when it is Isaac, the son of promise that represents life. A gift. A free gift of Grace through faith.

 

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Shalom, gentlemen.

This is what comes from wrong definitions of words: The word "salvation" is NOT meant to be used for one's "PERSONAL JUSTIFICATION BY GOD!!!"

When the Scriptures talk about "Jesus saving His people from their sins," or "Yeshua` rescuing His people from their sins," it is talking about Yeshua` rescuing His people from the CONSEQUENCES of their sins! And, in the sense of prophecy, when Yeshua` rescues His people from the consequences of their sins will be when Yeshua` returns and PHYSICALLY rescues His people from the bondage and persecution of His people - primarily the children of Israel, although it also applies to the Gentile believers, as well, who were ADOPTED into the family of Israel - by the ungodly nations surrounding their homeland, HIS Land!

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On 12/12/2019 at 1:13 PM, BibleGuy said:

 

Paul preached the word of FAITHFUL TORAH-OBEDIENCE (citing Dt.30:14 at Rom.10:8).

Thus, those are ACCURSED who oppose the Gospel of faithful Torah-obedience......

 

ACTUALLY, thats not true.

Paul never preached....."believen on the Lord Jesus, and keep the Torah to be saved".

You don't even seem to realize that you are the very one who is preaching "another Gospel", as your message that you just quoted, is blending faith with "keeping".   that is Grace + Works.

See that ?   >>>"Keeping"<<<<......that is "works", and when you combine works + faith, you have now preached "another Gospel".

Don't do that.

That's Galatians 1:8.

The "gospel", is that Christ came, died, rose again, and God offers this redeeming SACRIFICIAL  LIFE OF CHRIST, this "salvation"=  that Christ ALONE gained on the CROSS, as a FREE GIFT of Salvation, to any and all who "BELIEVE".

That is not "works".

That is not "keeping the Torah" or the Commandments, which is the SAME, as "Keeping the Torah".

That is God, as Christ, dying for the sin of the world, in our place, so that our SIN, can be forgiven.   JOHN 3:16

Thats THE GOSPEL.  That is the "preaching of the Cross".   That is ALL that Paul PREACHED.

You are not preaching it.   You are preaching "another Gospel".

STOP !

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