HEBREWS 9 THE NEW TESTAMENT WAS FOR ISRAEL ONLY

[douge]

33 minutes ago, Dennis1209 said:

I'm a little confused about what you're trying to communicate here too? Where do Messianic Jew's fit in with what you're trying to convey? 

Here is a link to my posts

https://3169.createaforum.com/study-to-shew-thyself-approved/120/

I started you at page 7, the beginning of the posts

[douge]

35 minutes ago, Dennis1209 said:

I'm a little confused about what you're trying to communicate here too? Where do Messianic Jew's fit in with what you're trying to convey? 

What is a Messianic Jew ?

[douge]

18 minutes ago, charisenexcelsis said:

You seem to be saying one thing and then another. I think you may be saying that you do not believe in substitutionalism? When Jesus said, this cup is the new covenant, do you believe that new covenant was extended to the Gentiles? If not, then why did Paul teach the partaking of the cup to Gentiles?

In the KJV anyway Jesus did not say the cup of the new covenant, but rather the new testament. I see a distinction. The new covenant is future, when Christ returns it will be fulfilled in the kingdom. The new covenant is only made with Israel (Jeremiah 31:31). The new testament according to Hebrews 9:15 was for the redemption of the transgressions Israel committed under the first testament. 

It was revealed to Paul that the blood of the new testament was also applied for the redemption of those who believe Paul's gospel, the gospel of grace in this dispensation, both Jew and Gentile.

 

[Resurrection Priest]

5 hours ago, douge said:

Peter was the apostle to the circumcision, the Jews. Paul was the apostle to the uncircumcision, the Gentiles, and as such, taught differing gospels.

Huh??  There's only ONE Gospel - Good News.  

 

[Resurrection Priest]

All those who believe in Jesus as God's only begotten Son, are presently "betrothed to Him" by a NEW covenant of marriage.  (The first one is now obsolete. 1. adultery  2.  the "husband" died)

Ancient Middle Eastern marriage custom:

 Marriage was contracted between the father of the bride to be, and the father of the groom - each accompanied by a “witness.”  This betrothal was the binding marriage covenant!  Adultery during this period of betrothal was punishable by death.  The period of betrothal lasted about one year, during which time the groom would “prepare a place” for his bride (usually an apartment within the extended family compound). When this “home” was completed - the date was set for “the wedding”.

        The ceremony was simple. The groom’s attendant lifted the veil from the bride’s face.  Draping it over the shoulder of the groom he pronounced, “The government shall be upon his shoulder” (Isa. 9:6).  The bride then accompanied her husband back to his family home, where the wedding feast, and consummation of the marriage, took place.  (Gower, Ralph, The New Manners and Customs of Bible Times, Moody Press, Chicago, pg65.; Alexander, P.T., The Lion Encyclopedia of the Bible, Reader’s Digest, pg.166.)

We are now betrothed to Yeshua Messiah.  The “marriage feast” and full consummation is yet to come, AFTER "Israel" (all of the saved) are returned to "the land" that is the inheritance of our "Husband" - Jesus Christ. 

We don't "marry" Jesus at the "marriage of the Lamb".  That will be the marriage feast.  Notice it says, "His wife has made herself ready."  She's already His wife legally - by the betrothal (marriage) covenant. 

Revelation 19:7 "Let us be glad and rejoice and give Him glory, for the marriage of the Lamb has come, and His wife has made herself ready." (NKJ)

 

Every believer will go into the Heavenly realm for the wedding feast.  We will stand before the throne, on the "sea of glass". 

But we will come back to this earth, which Christ will heal and restore "new", for our eternal home. 

 

Is this an argument for "the pre-trib rapture", where "the church" is transported to "heaven", leaving the Jews on earth with the rest of the unbelievers for 7 years? 

I don't believe in the whole pre-trib rapture thing.

[douge]

16 hours ago, Resurrection Priest said:

Huh??  There's only ONE Gospel - Good News.  

 

Here are some links to a couple of relevant posts I wrote

https://3169.createaforum.com/study-to-shew-thyself-approved/differing-gospels/

https://3169.createaforum.com/study-to-shew-thyself-approved/jesus-and-the-twelve-preached-a-different-gospel/

https://3169.createaforum.com/study-to-shew-thyself-approved/differences-and-similarities-bewtween-all-the-apostles/

https://3169.createaforum.com/study-to-shew-thyself-approved/the-apostles-did-not-preach-the-same-gospel/

 

[douge]

10 hours ago, charisenexcelsis said:

Covenant and testament can be used interchangeably. What Jesus said was the same word in Hebrews used to speak of the covenant.

Jeremiah 31:31 Behold, the days come, saith the LORD, that I will make a new covenant with the house of Israel, and with the house of Judah:

Ezekiel 36:24 For I will take you from among the heathen, and gather you out of all countries, and will bring you into your own land.

Both of these verses are speaking of the new covenant....today Israel is still not in the promised land...the new covenant is future

The new testament was fulfilled by the cross.

I don't think this shows they are interchangeable.