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Posted

Greetings, sibs . . .

I am an American and I speak English so I most often use the name “Jesus.”  What matters most to me is that I may know Him and the power of His resurrection.  
Jesus (God’s Savior) was given a name above all other names—He is the Messiah, the Savior, and our coming Redeemer.  He is the Christ, the very Son of God!  

Acts 4:12

12 Nor is there salvation in any other, for there is no other name under heaven given among men by which we must be saved.”

Philippians 2:8-12

8 And being found in appearance as a man, He humbled Himself and became obedient to the point of death, even the death of the cross. 9 Therefore God also has highly exalted Him and given Him the name which is above every name, 10 that at the name of Jesus every knee should bow, of those in heaven, and of those on earth, and of those under the earth, 11 and that every tongue should confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father.

selah . . .


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Posted
On 8/8/2021 at 1:22 PM, Ancient said:

When translating from one language to another one of the many rules are that you use the closest sound for the letter you are translating to from the letter you are translating from. This is for proper nouns especially the names of people (names) places (cities, rivers, mountains). 

For example Moses in Hebrew is Mosheh, translated to Greek is Moseus and then English Moses. You can see the similarities of sound through out the translation process. the us on the end of the Greek Moseus is making it masculine.

Why is not the same process used for the name Jesus. Let me explain.

In Hebrew the name of the one most call Jesus is Yeshua which literally means salvation or deliverance. Translated into Greek it is Ieseus. Greek does not have the y sound so the closest sound is the I sound. Again like above with Moseus the Greek adds the us on the end to make is masculine. So we have Ieseus in Greek. Now the problem. We have all the sounds of Yeshua in our English language. So why not translate is as Yeshua?

Now let me add this to my point the letter J was introduced into the English language in around the mid 1600's and not in common use for say another 50 - 100 yrs. So at best the name Jesus is only around 300 yrs old not very long in the scheme of things. To also validate my point in the 1611 version of the KJV there is no Jesus why because there was no letter J in the English language. In the 1611 KJV it is Iesus very close translation to the Greek Ieseus. 

The question is why, why have translations chosen not to accurately translate His Hebrew name Yeshua which means salvation and deliverance. You may say well what's the big deal. It is a very very big deal. I can definitely tell you that there are many other occurrences like this in English translations. I will give you another gross deliberate changing of the text. You better sit down.

The Book of James in the NT is not James! It is Jacob or in Hebrew Yakov. So again why completely and deliberately change the name of a book of the NT? There are some theories which include that King James wanted his name in the bible. Another one is the Yakov or Jacob is Jewish and we can't have that now can we. Maybe the same reason why they have chosen not to translate His Hebrew name Yeshua accurately. 

Friends stuff like this has sadly happened more than most would know, it is deceitful, lying and leads people to read the text in a certain light. The knowledge of this has changed my life and the way I study the Bible, armed with this knowledge my relationship with God who I refer to as Yahweh again the text says LORD a total misrepresentation of the Hebrew language. When the bible is studied from this perspective it totally transforms the word of God and the whole book starts to make sense and all the puzzle pieces fit nicely together. All the perceived contradictions just fade away and you see the the Original text is truly the infallible word of God not the translation of the original text. 

Shalom Friends I really hope that this gets you all thinking.

 

Shalom @Ancient

 

לִֽישׁוּעָתְָ֖ קִוִּ֥יתִי יְהוָֽה׃ 

I believe this was your meaning regarding the name of Jesus in derivation from the Hebrew. 

I would like to hear your furtherance as to the name of James. I think that presentation didn't stand up very well and seemed to be the cause of much misunderstanding. 


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Posted
2 hours ago, appy said:

missmuffet was asking a rhetorical question to make a point, rather than asking to get an answer. And I think that her point in this thread is very valid, considering the claim by the opster that scripture has been manipulated and is all wrong.

 

Well, the Holy Scripture is perfect, but, unfortunately, when the theologians translated to our language, some words were difficult to understand.


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Posted
On 8/9/2021 at 9:42 AM, Josheb said:

Yes, I think you praying for your eyes to be opened would be a good thing in all circumstances. God is faithful to do so if we ask (Jms. 1:5) We're not discussing what was spoken; we're discussing the language(s) in which the Bible was written. Hebrew being spoken in the first century is not in dispute. The claim the Bible was written in Hebrew is in dispute. You said, "The Bible is written in Hebrew." That is not a factually correct statement.  Portions of Tanakh were originally written in Hebrew but the Bible was NOT written in Hebrew. Archeology does evidence Hebrew was spoken in the first century but archeology does not evidence the Bible originally written in Hebrew...

 

...and you are invited right here and now to post the proof for such a claim

 

Otherwise, lacking any such evidence, we understand the New Testament was written in Greek, not Hebrew. We understand the Bible was written in four languages, not one. 

 

And it would be best if comments about praying eyes to be opened were left out of the discussion: stay on topic and keep the posts about the posts, not the posters. 

The evidence shows that NT was written in Aramaic which is extremely close to Hebrew before Greek and yes there have been samples found with the Book of Matt written in Hebrew before Greek. The NT writers were Hebrews not Greeks. The dead sea scrolls also attest to the Hebrew language being used very close to the time of Yeshua. 

Also you miss the original point I was bringing out the no one thus far has been able to explain which was the process of translation. We have the same sounds in our English language to transliterate the original name Yeshua directly into our language and that the letter J is only a recent addition in the scheme of things which is why one does not find the name Jesus in the original 1611 KJV. 

Also the fact that the book of James is not James it is Jacob. Why not use the correct transliterations in the translation? This is my point. Also what else has not been accurately been translated. Do you not think that the Hebrew name Yeshua meaning salvation and deliverance is awesome. The English word Jesus simply does not convey that meaning. Each time His disciples and His mother and His brothers and sisters said His name they were proclaiming salvation and deliverance. Maybe one of the many reasons the religious folk got upset knowing His name meant savior, salvation and deliverance. Halleluyah this is awesome.

Shalom friend


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Posted
On 8/9/2021 at 9:52 AM, Josheb said:

Hmmm.... Your handle is "Ancient". Do you understand there are posters from all over the world in this forum and they do not all pronounce the word, "ancient" the same? 

 

Yes, there is power in the name of God's anointed one but the transliteration Yahshua is not magic. Neither is the word "deliver!" or "save!" or "rescue!" or "God saves!" The apostle were not reciting incantations if they said, "In the name of Yahsua!" or "In the name of God saves!" That would be a gross misunderstanding of both scripture and the power of the anointed one's name. 

??????? 

Jesus is not Jesus' Hebrew name! The Hebrew name has had no "concrete effect". The Latin has, but not the Hebrew. 

 

 

Would you mind going back to my original op reply and answering the questions I asked? 

  • What is the purpose of the op?
  • Why do you think the names were changed?
  • Is its purpose to imply or otherwise insinuate there is a problem with the Bible?
  • Is some conspiracy thought to have existed?
  • What difference do you think would occur if all the English-speaking people started using the names "Yehshus/Yahoshua" and "Yakov"? 

 

Thx

Actually the Hebrew is concrete in every way. Just about every Hebrew word is concrete. It is our English that is abstract. I have already posted as to why I think the names were changed and provided some examples. Like I have already stated Hebrew words/names and places have meanings again showing the concrete meanings of names. As I have already stated Yeshua means salvation, deliverance. Yakov means the heel. This is a very powerful meaning and then his name was changed to Israel which also has a powerful meaning. Why was His name changed? Because names means things in Hebrew. Abram to Abraham, Sarai to Sarah. Why?

God even sent an angel to instruct Mary on the name our savior should be called. Names means things. DO you think the angel came speaking in Greek to Mary a Hebrew woman?  

Shalom Friend


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Posted (edited)
On 8/9/2021 at 10:01 AM, Josheb said:

Nope. Never said any such thing. Don't know why I would be incorrectly imagined to be saying such a thing. God's anointed one stood right in front of the Jews and most of them denied him. They got it wrong! The reason Yahoshua was not recognized is because they misread Tanakh and thought God's anointed one was gonna look much different than he did. This is just ONE of the many things the Jews got incorrect. Nearly everything Jesus taught can be found in the Tanakh but much of what he taught was correction: Jesus correcting the Jewsih misunderstanding of God's word! 

I assume you know this. 

But just to make sure I asked. 

And, once again, the question was not answered. Instead a baseless rhetorical question that absolutely nothing to do with what I actually posted was asked in absence of an answer. So I ask again: Are you aware the Jews got many things incorrect? If not I'll happily walk through some of these things with you. 

 

For example: The name "God saves" has meaning. But what is that meaning? From what is it the Jews thought God saved?

Please understand that you cannot put all Jews into one basket and say they all did. Look at Nicodemus, Gamliel and many many other Pharisees that followed. Yes the Jewish leaders got many many things wrong, High priest was illegitimate put there by Rome, Herod wasn't even Jewish breaking the Torah. Yes many things were wrong with the religious leadership the few not all Jews. 

But my friend we have all done so many things wrong.

They were expecting the Messiah as prophesied and spoken by the prophets. That God was going to deliver them by the Messiah, why do you think they asked Him are you the Messiah or should we look for another. Some confessed that He was the Messiah, or Mashiach in Hebrew.

Shalom Friend 

Edited by Ancient
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Posted
On 8/9/2021 at 10:05 AM, Josheb said:

Right. Thanks for actually answering that question directly and not posting a rhetorical onus-shifting question. 

 

So was Jesus called "Yeshua" or was he called "Salvation"?  Was Jacob called Yakov or heal grabber, overreaches, or grifter? Was Michael called Michael or Who is like God? 

Yeshua and Salvation mean the same thing. Yakov means heel. They are not seperate terms that's the point! You don't get those meanings in English. This is why I love the Hebrew language so much it reveals much more deeper truths and meanings. Can't you see that all I am trying to do is help people if they want to investigate for themselves and maybe shine a light and expose things that many are not aware of. No harm done.

Critical thinking is not a bad thing, to get another perspective is not a bad thing.

Shalom Friend

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Posted
On 8/9/2021 at 12:24 PM, AandW_Rootbeer said:

Properly in line with meaning, Yeshua literally means Yahweh's Salvation.  I like to add <Plan> behind it to make it read "Yahweh's Salvation Plan!"

 

What was Yahweh's Salvation Plan?   Yeshua enduring Death/Burial/Resurrection!

Yes awesome. There you go. Praise Yahweh

Shalom Friend

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Posted
On 8/9/2021 at 1:02 PM, The_Patriot21 said:

So i shall take by your response that you are unable to answer that question? 

So, can you list any changes that does actually change the message of the text?

Yes Yeshua's brother was call Jacob not James. This itself should pose the question why did they not represent this accurately. what is wrong with the name Jacob?

The word Pentecost. This was the Feast of Weeks. A Hebrew Feast day commanded by God to keep. Why were there thousands of people in Jerusalem at that time. They had to be there it was commanded by God 3 times a year all your males must appear before God, Passover, Feast of Weeks/Shavout/Pentecost and Feast of Tabernacles. 

They were all there still in obedience to God after the death and resurrection of Yeshua. Hmmm. Pentecost is not a Christian day it is a Hebrew Feast day.  The thousands that were added in Acts 2 were devout Jews from all the countries round about being obedient observing the Feast of Shavuot. Hmmmm.

Shalom Friend

 

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Posted
On 8/9/2021 at 4:59 PM, Deborah_ said:

The Gospel was brought to England by monks from Rome in the 6th century. They were using the Latin translation of the Bible - this was hundreds of years before the first English translation direct from Hebrew and Greek. By then, people had got used to the Latin versions of the names - and so they stuck.

The peshitta (aramaic) extremely close language to Hebrew is believed to be the earliest know NT script. Also it is believed the Shem Tov of the book of Matthew written in Hebrew is from the 1st century. Both of these are earlier than Latin. Jerome was the main person for the Latin translation which is called the vulgate. Jerome spent time before this with believers in Antioch and learnt, spoke and wrote Hebrew and wrote copies of the Gospels in Hebrew before the Latin vulgate. 

Shalom Friend

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