AN INQUIRING MIND WOULD LIKE TO KNOW

[Dennis1209]

7 hours ago, AdHoc said:

No. It's a fair question.

The Lord accused the Pharisees that by their traditions they made the Word of God of nine effect (Matt.15:6, Mk.7:13). For reasons of controlling people and their inheritance, we have declared state recognition for marriage. It must be administered at best by tradition, and at worst by a state appointed official. But Biblical marriage is not a tradition nor a piece of paper. God declared it as a man and woman copulating and then staying to together to form a new union over and above the parent-child union. God's definition has quite some information in it;

 23 And Adam said, This is now bone of my bones, and flesh of my flesh: she shall be called Woman, because she was taken out of Man. 24 Therefore shall a man leave his father and his mother, and shall cleave unto his wife: and they shall be one flesh.
...
4 And he answered and said unto them, Have ye not read, that he which made them at the beginning made them male and female, 5 And said, For this cause shall a man leave father and mother, and shall cleave to his wife: and they twain shall be one flesh? 6 Wherefore they are no more twain, but one flesh. What therefore God hath joined together, let not man put asunder (Gen.2:22–24, Mat.19:4–6)

1. The law of kinds in Genesis 1:11-12 is made prominent "MY bone of bone and MY flesh of flesh"
2. This is upheld doubly by the Wo-man having her ORIGIN in the man
3. "Cleave" means to "cling to" or "keep close". It refers to them not parting
4. "Become one flesh" is the sexual act
5. Leave father and mother. A new unit is formed to supersede that of the womb. This does not absolve the man of honoring his parents, nor respecting them. It simply gives the woman first love and first loyalty. It also establishes geographical distance. God wants the man free of immediate influence by his parents in favor of the wife.

The union thus made is blessed by the Lord and man is forbidden to do anything to damage this union. The union between woman and angel violates all of the above 5 points. The angel is a completely different species. He is not from the man. To have sex he must "leave his estate" (Jude 6). the word "estate" comes from the root word "to be first". It can mean "his rule". The idea is their "beginning" gave them status which they left. Angels had the equipment for sex but where not made for this.*

The bottom line is that marriage is the sex act, that angels do not marry (because marriage is an act and not a piece of paper). This act is not authorized by God for angels. And thus, once we have our resurrection body we will forego the sexual act. Death ends the union (1st Cor.7:2-3). On arising the Christian is "given" into a new marriage with Christ (2nd Cor.11:2) - but one of a united "spirit" (1st Cor.6:17).
 

* I judge that the motive of woman for this grievous breach of the law of species was lust, but the angels, under authority of Satan, had another. All the acts of Satan against men is to meddle with "the seed of the woman" from which Jesus would come. Satan attacks this seed from every angle - angels copulating, murder, war, conspiring to provole men to disobey God, homosexuality and bestiality.

Interesting thought about the two marriages spoken of: “marry and given in marriage.” Try finding the difference, if any, in a commentary or the same root Greek word LOL.

That is one part of Jewish history I am not familiar with. Say from around 30-40 A.D. when this was written:

Mark 12:25 For when they shall rise from the dead, they neither marry, nor are given in marriage; but are as the angels which are in heaven.

I would assume the Romans or the Sanhedrin required sponsorship and a license for marriage (records-tax purposes). I had asked this question before and only heard crickets, so evidently, no one else noticed it or did not know. It makes perfect sense; governments have always stuck their nose into what God has ordained, for control and to make a profit.

Before getting permission to get married, I had to get a blood test for, I assume, that we were not brother and sister or close relatives. Then, “apply” for a marriage license with a hefty fee. Now, depending on how one is “legally” married (common law vs. license), how much they soak you with taxes. Currently, homosexual marriage is legal, getting the same benefits.

That is one reason I thought Mark 12:25 might be two different types of marriage, one shacking up or homosexual (marry), and the other traditional church marriage sanctioned by God (given).

Good point there, brother, thanks!

[AdHoc]

4 hours ago, Jaydub said:

Off the top of my head I can think of at least 8 times someone was raised from the dead in scripture, not counting the time multiple people were reported to have risen. I would like to know what you think happened to these people after they were given life again?

I think the fact that man was appointed once to die speaks of our spiritual man. We die to sin or we die eternally. remember Jesus said, in John, that if we believe in him we pass over death unto life.

Jesus doesn't see the lose of life as death. Jesus said to his disciples, Lazarus was asleep. When Jesus went to Jairus's house, he told the mourners that his daughter was sleeping not dead.

You are correct. Counting our Lord Jesus and Moses, there were 8 - plus the two by the Apostles. Then comes the company of Old Testament saints on resurrection day (Matt.27:52). We know that 3 of them are in heaven, Enoch, whom God took, Elijah who went into heaven on a whirlwind and our Lord Jesus. Both Elijah and our Lord Jesus will come at the end of the age. So there is no problem from the precedent-side for living men to go to, and sojourn in heaven. In fact literally millions will do that at the rapture.

I take note of your understanding of Hebrews 9:27. My understanding is that
(i) you can't die spiritually. There is not a single case of a spirit dying in the whole Bible. There is a theory that Adam died spiritually, but that is not said by any scripture, and it is a speculative theory to explain the day in which Adam died. Angels are spirits and they cannot die. James 2:26 gives the spirit of man as his "life". It seems to be very alive in the believer and the unbeliever (see Luke 8:55).

(ii) if you spiritualize death in the same verse you have to spiritualize judgment. What you do to one thing in a given verse you have to do to the others. Both "Spiritual death" and "spiritual judgment" are not mentioned by any verse. But I grant you your argument over John 5:24. The verse ends with "death UNTO life." The word "eis" means INTO. Would you not say that this is a description of the believers POSITION? Your position is this room but by the door you pass INTO that room. When you are IN Christ you are IN His position - heaven (Eph.2:6), but we both are not in heaven. Is not death a position that one is in before conversion?

Truly, our Lord Jesus views death as sleep. But I can't see how that affects the discussion. My contention is that there is not a single bit of evidence that a man can die twice. But if you think otherwise - no problem. The idea of this Forum is to swap ideas.