The Penal Theory of the Atonement

[endure4salvation]

The atonement of Jesus Christ is said by some to have been a 'payment' for our sins.

I would like for someone to explain this further to me because I don't see how this theory is possible, when the totality of Scripture is taken into account. I have read verses that seem to indicate a payment because of words like 'bought with a price' and the like, but this is probably nothing more then figurative language to describe something. Like if I said:

"It was sure a huge price to pay when I stole that computer part from the store. It cost me 30 days in jail and my reputation."

I used the words 'huge price to pay' and 'cost' but there was no actual payment recorded here. It is figurative language to explain the huge and negative difference it made because of my choice to steal.

And likewise, if I travel from St. Louis to Alaska by car to pick up my cat and there were times when my car broke down, I was too tired to continue driving, etc., Well, if after I get home my cat claws on the furniture and eats my fish, my neighbor comes to me and asks for the cat, I could respond with the following sentence:

"That cat was bought with a price!"

Does this mean that I actually made a payment to someone for this cat? It doesn't have to, does it? It basically states that I went to a great length to get this cat and I don't want to get rid of it.

Such is the case with the Biblical words that seem to indicate an actual, literal payment for our sins. No such payment was made. I would like to ask the question for someone who accepts such a payment.

Who was the payment made to? Was it Satan or God (or someone or something else)?

[godrulz]

I concur that the Penal theory or Commercial Transaction theory of the atonement is popular, but problematic. See Albert Barnes book 'The Atonement' (Bethany House Publishers).

Charles Finney's view of Moral Government and public justice seems more in line with God's character than the retributive justice model.

I believe payment is a metaphor, but not the whole story to the problems a Holy God faced to wisely and justly forgive sinful man.

[Dad Ernie]

Greetings,

I do believe the "payment" is a "metaphor" but a very important one. We are told that "For your sin, you shall die", the sin being the transgression against God and His own righteousness, and the death of the sinner is the "payment" that was called for as punishment. In the OT, we see "payment" made in forms of offerings, tithes, etc. and by the High Priests by the "blood of lambs and goats".

Romans 3:25 Whom God hath set forth to be a propitiation through faith in his blood, to declare his righteousness for the remission of sins that are past, through the forbearance of God;

1 John 2:2 And he is the propitiation for our sins: and not for ours only, but also for the sins of the whole world.

1 John 4:10 Herein is love, not that we loved God, but that he loved us, and sent his Son to be the propitiation for our sins.

2435 hilasterion {hil-as-tay'-ree-on}

from a derivative of 2433; TDNT - 3:318,362; n n

AV - propitiation 1, mercyseat 1; 2

1) relating to an appeasing or expiating, having placating or

expiating force, expiatory; a means of appeasing or expiating,

a propitiation

1a) used of the cover of the ark of the covenant in the Holy

of Holies, which was sprinkled with the blood of the

expiatory victim on the annual day of atonement (this rite

signifying that the life of the people, the loss of which

they had merited by their sins, was offered to God in the

blood as the life of the victim, and that God by this

ceremony was appeased and their sins expiated); hence the

lid of expiation, the propitiatory

1b) an expiatory sacrifice

1c) a expiatory victim

Somehow God had to be "appeased", and the ONLY one that was "righteous" enough (a pure lamb) was Jesus Christ. God Himself "appeased Himself", through the death of the Son on the cross. So we see that God demanded "payment", then because there was NOTHING that man has or is to make adequate payment, He "paid the price" we could not pay.

Blessings,

Dad Ernie

[nebula]

Who was the payment made to? Was it Satan or God (or someone or something else)?

My pastor once made a statment that sticks to my mind.

(Paraphrase)

I'm tired of Christians saying or making allusions to the idea that Jesus had to buy us from Satan. God doesn't owe the devil a dime! Jesus paid the Law.

[endure4salvation]

Thanks for all of your posts, everybody!

I have some more questions for those that accept the penal (or payment) theory.

1. How many sins did the payment cover?

2. Was it 100% of sins for everybody to ever live?

3. How is this payment applied to the believer?

Just trying to understand and get the fullness of the truth.

[Dad Ernie]

Greetings E4S,

I have some more questions for those that accept the penal (or payment) theory.

1. How many sins did the payment cover?

2. Was it 100% of sins for everybody to ever live?

3. How is this payment applied to the believer?

1 & 2 - When we stand before the Bema Judgment Seat 100% of the sins committed in this life will have been forgiven. The "Great White Throne Judgment" is something else again.

3 - The believer is given a white robe which stands for the righteousness of Christ.

Blessings,

Dad Ernie

[Mrs Mac]

Rom 6:23 For the wages of sin is death; but the gift of God is eternal life through Jesus Christ our Lord.

We are paid the payment of death for our sinful nature and our sins.

The payment of those wages was paid to Jesus Christ on the cross. God loved us so much that He arranged for Jesus to receive our wages.

One has to accept that the payment was paid in full for it to be recognised by God as paid .

Ethlyn

[godrulz]

A literal payment would result in universalism. If someone pays my restaurant bill, there is no further obligation on my part. I do not have to do anything. Universalism is false, hence the atonement is not a literal payment (certainly not to Satan, the Father, or an impersonal law). The key is public justice, not appeasing (retributive justice) the God who wants to freely forgive but must also show His great love for us and hatred for sin. The cross demonstrates both and breaks our hearts to want to surrender to Him and forsake sin. It allows God to wisely and justly forgive (He wants to show mercy and grace, but the awefulness of sin and His holy character must be revealed).

[endure4salvation]

Surely someone here believes in the payment theory, right?

[JesusisGod2]

these are great post guys, but have you considered the following scripture verses

1 Cor 6:20 "For you have been bought with a price; therefore glorify God in your body and in your spirit, which are Gods"

Notice this verse says we were bought in other words there was a payment made which was the blood of Christ.

Also notice that it our bodies and our spirits are Gods this denotes ownership. now how does one gain ownership unless one pays for it. If you steal something like say a car and get away with it, you still dont own that product. For I guarentee once the true owner finds it, he will regain possesion and you will pay the penalty.

lets look at another

1 Cor 7:23 "Ye are bought with a price; be not ye servants of men."

Again it is telling us a payment was made and ownership transfered, Paul here relates this to being a servant of God vs 22.

Romans 3:24

"being justified freely by His grace through the redemption that is in Jesus Christ"

the word redemption means "to deliver by paying a price"

Now this next verse is not directed at anyone or at any post but does fit the question asked.

2 Pet 2:1

"But there were false prophets also among the people, even as there shall be false teachers among you, who secretly shall bring in destructive heresies, even denying the Lord that bought them, and bring upon themselves swift destrution.

Rev 5:9 "......for Thou wast slain, and hast redeemed us to God by thy blood out of every kindred, and tongue, and people, and nation"

I could go on and on but I know from experience how hard and tedious it is sometimes to read a whole page of a thread for just one post so I'll wait for a reply.

So my answer to your question is most definately yes, we were bought by Jesus. Christ made the payment required by the Law and redeemed us through His blood. The bible says it is so.

We were under (Owned by, married to) law but Christ paid the required wage to the owner (the law) and ownership was passed to the one who purchased (Bought, paid for) which is Jesus.

Praise the Lord! He paid the price that I could in no way afford (Had no means of which to pay)