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Posted

Hi SeekingHiswill,

The best I can offer is the following:-

Matthew 5:31

"You have heard that the law of Moses says, 'A man can divorce his wife by merely giving her a letter of divorce.'

& 32

But I say that a man who divorces his wife, unless she has been unfaithful, causes her to commit adultery. And anyone who marries a divorced woman commits adultery."

Hebrews 13:4

Give honor to marriage, and remain faithful to one another in marriage. God will surely judge people who are immoral and those who commit adultery.

Also look up Proverbs 6:24

and what Thomas M. Strouse writes seems to make sense to me....

"The Bible and Marriage

God instituted marriage with the first man and woman, Adam and Eve (Gen. 2:20-24). The Bible formula for marriage is "Therefore shall a man leave his father and his mother, and shall cleave unto his wife: and they shall be one flesh" (v.24). There are three factors delineated for a marriage union. The "leaving" delineates the social factor, the "cleaving" delineates the spiritual factor, and the "weaving" delineates the sexual factor. All three factors are necessary to constitute a Biblical marriage. The social factor involves a public awareness that the couple is married. This awareness is usually conveyed by a public ceremony or document. The spiritual factor involves a unity of mind and heart on the major matters of life. The sexual factor involves an intimate relationship which is monogamous and permanent. "

Hope this in some way assists :)

That makes sense about leaving and cleaving. I think I've come to my conclusion that that is the basic formula as well. But what I'm struggling with is that I know a couple that is living together without the traditional means of marriage. they both have made their covenant know to each other, God, and those around them.... I'm finding myself between a rock and a hard place here in my discussion with my friend. God doesn't seem to give any more information than leaving your parents and cleaving to your husband/wife... so I keep falling away from the belief that you have to be married (not saying one shouldn't or that it's better not to be) before living together and taking each other as husband/wife. I can't see God deeming their relationship sinful as others have thought it to be...

So why can't they do it legally? If sex is outside marriage it is sin, and someone can't hold to the primise, that hey, in the eyes of Jesus we are married. Other people are watching, doesn't the Lord tell us to even obstain from the appearance of sin, that wouldn't be a good testimony. No one has to have a large elaborate marriage, anyone can go down to the court house. Some people call themselves married so they can continue to collect the same amount in SS benefits-is that really right-it's not a good testimony.

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Posted

John 4:17-18Go and get your husband," Jesus told her. I don't have a husband," the woman replied. Jesus said,"You're right! You don't have a husband-

for you had five husbands, and you aren't even married to the man you're living with now. You certainly spoke the truth!"


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Posted

Hi SeekingHiswill,

The best I can offer is the following:-

Matthew 5:31

"You have heard that the law of Moses says, 'A man can divorce his wife by merely giving her a letter of divorce.'

& 32

But I say that a man who divorces his wife, unless she has been unfaithful, causes her to commit adultery. And anyone who marries a divorced woman commits adultery."

Hebrews 13:4

Give honor to marriage, and remain faithful to one another in marriage. God will surely judge people who are immoral and those who commit adultery.

Also look up Proverbs 6:24

and what Thomas M. Strouse writes seems to make sense to me....

"The Bible and Marriage

God instituted marriage with the first man and woman, Adam and Eve (Gen. 2:20-24). The Bible formula for marriage is "Therefore shall a man leave his father and his mother, and shall cleave unto his wife: and they shall be one flesh" (v.24). There are three factors delineated for a marriage union. The "leaving" delineates the social factor, the "cleaving" delineates the spiritual factor, and the "weaving" delineates the sexual factor. All three factors are necessary to constitute a Biblical marriage. The social factor involves a public awareness that the couple is married. This awareness is usually conveyed by a public ceremony or document. The spiritual factor involves a unity of mind and heart on the major matters of life. The sexual factor involves an intimate relationship which is monogamous and permanent. "

Hope this in some way assists :)

That makes sense about leaving and cleaving. I think I've come to my conclusion that that is the basic formula as well. But what I'm struggling with is that I know a couple that is living together without the traditional means of marriage. they both have made their covenant know to each other, God, and those around them.... I'm finding myself between a rock and a hard place here in my discussion with my friend. God doesn't seem to give any more information than leaving your parents and cleaving to your husband/wife... so I keep falling away from the belief that you have to be married (not saying one shouldn't or that it's better not to be) before living together and taking each other as husband/wife. I can't see God deeming their relationship sinful as others have thought it to be...

So why can't they do it legally? If sex is outside marriage it is sin, and someone can't hold to the primise, that hey, in the eyes of Jesus we are married. Other people are watching, doesn't the Lord tell us to even obstain from the appearance of sin, that wouldn't be a good testimony. No one has to have a large elaborate marriage, anyone can go down to the court house. Some people call themselves married so they can continue to collect the same amount in SS benefits-is that really right-it's not a good testimony.

They are in the process of doing it legally. the man's wife left him and it took her a long time to even start wanting to file divorce papers and go through with all of the hassle. That is a good point on where Christ says to avoid the appearance of sin, and that leads me to ask if the two have made a covenant before the Lord and the people around them, are they sinning?


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Posted
Recently I have been discussing marriage with a friend of mine. I used to believe that marriage had to take place with a ceremony where a pastor or judge performed a ceremony and was provided a legal document that stated that they had been married. I haven't found anything saying that there has to be a ceremony providing a legal document. Can a man and a woman (please lets keep it heterosexual in this topic) be married by a commitment between the man, woman, God? Or do they have to have a public ceremony? Adam and Eve didn't have to have a public ceremony. And God never made them after the fall of man. I'm looking for God inspired scriptural answers to this, not just personal opinions. I have been getting quite a few of those... but I want to know what God wants in a marriage.

seems to me if scriptures says in Matt. 19:7,8 that moses commanded to give a writing of divorcement. then it would also stand to reason their must have been a legal binding document they had at the time of marriage back then. As the bill of divorcement would make it null and void.

Like in Romans 7:1,2 it talks about being bound by the law showing us that there had to be a law which had dominion and rule over their marriage a law that governored their marriage or made it a binding contract between the two.

1 Cor. 7:39

A marriage is a blood covenant agreement that two people the man and the woman enter into with one another. the marriage covenant in writing, the legal document for the public is not in effect unless there is shedding of blood between the two parties this shedding of blood is shed when the two parties on their honeymoon night join together and the virginity is taken for it is sealed or brought into effect at that time between the two parties as their is shedding of blood in taking the virginity. and they are bound to one another in the eyes of God. and the covenant agreement remains intact until death.

Heb. 9:16-20 a testament is a covenant a witness between two parties and is always brought into effect by shedding of blood. like it is when Christ had to die in order that the new covenant between God and man could be brought into effect because as long as he was still living the old covenant was still in effect that had been sealed with the blood of bulls and goats. any how it is food for thought for you on the matter.

just stands to reason if their had to be a writing of divorcement granted then their had to be a legal binding document for the marriage as well that had dominion over them in the marriage.


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Posted

Recently I have been discussing marriage with a friend of mine. I used to believe that marriage had to take place with a ceremony where a pastor or judge performed a ceremony and was provided a legal document that stated that they had been married. I haven't found anything saying that there has to be a ceremony providing a legal document. Can a man and a woman (please lets keep it heterosexual in this topic) be married by a commitment between the man, woman, God? Or do they have to have a public ceremony? Adam and Eve didn't have to have a public ceremony. And God never made them after the fall of man. I'm looking for God inspired scriptural answers to this, not just personal opinions. I have been getting quite a few of those... but I want to know what God wants in a marriage.

seems to me if scriptures says in Matt. 19:7,8 that moses commanded to give a writing of divorcement. then it would also stand to reason their must have been a legal binding document they had at the time of marriage back then. As the bill of divorcement would make it null and void.

Like in Romans 7:1,2 it talks about being bound by the law showing us that there had to be a law which had dominion and rule over their marriage a law that governored their marriage or made it a binding contract between the two.

1 Cor. 7:39

A marriage is a blood covenant agreement that two people the man and the woman enter into with one another. the marriage covenant in writing, the legal document for the public is not in effect unless there is shedding of blood between the two parties this shedding of blood is shed when the two parties on their honeymoon night join together and the virginity is taken for it is sealed or brought into effect at that time between the two parties as their is shedding of blood in taking the virginity. and they are bound to one another in the eyes of God. and the covenant agreement remains intact until death.

Heb. 9:16-20 a testament is a covenant a witness between two parties and is always brought into effect by shedding of blood. like it is when Christ had to die in order that the new covenant between God and man could be brought into effect because as long as he was still living the old covenant was still in effect that had been sealed with the blood of bulls and goats. any how it is food for thought for you on the matter.

just stands to reason if their had to be a writing of divorcement granted then their had to be a legal binding document for the marriage as well that had dominion over them in the marriage.

That's very true. But it frustrates me that the Bible isn't specific on this... I suppose that the Bible doesn't give specifics on allot of things... I think I'm learning what God meant when he was talking about his "mysteries."


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Posted

Hi SeekingHiswill,

The best I can offer is the following:-

Matthew 5:31

"You have heard that the law of Moses says, 'A man can divorce his wife by merely giving her a letter of divorce.'

& 32

But I say that a man who divorces his wife, unless she has been unfaithful, causes her to commit adultery. And anyone who marries a divorced woman commits adultery."

Hebrews 13:4

Give honor to marriage, and remain faithful to one another in marriage. God will surely judge people who are immoral and those who commit adultery.

Also look up Proverbs 6:24

and what Thomas M. Strouse writes seems to make sense to me....

"The Bible and Marriage

God instituted marriage with the first man and woman, Adam and Eve (Gen. 2:20-24). The Bible formula for marriage is "Therefore shall a man leave his father and his mother, and shall cleave unto his wife: and they shall be one flesh" (v.24). There are three factors delineated for a marriage union. The "leaving" delineates the social factor, the "cleaving" delineates the spiritual factor, and the "weaving" delineates the sexual factor. All three factors are necessary to constitute a Biblical marriage. The social factor involves a public awareness that the couple is married. This awareness is usually conveyed by a public ceremony or document. The spiritual factor involves a unity of mind and heart on the major matters of life. The sexual factor involves an intimate relationship which is monogamous and permanent. "

Hope this in some way assists :wub:

That makes sense about leaving and cleaving. I think I've come to my conclusion that that is the basic formula as well. But what I'm struggling with is that I know a couple that is living together without the traditional means of marriage. they both have made their covenant know to each other, God, and those around them.... I'm finding myself between a rock and a hard place here in my discussion with my friend. God doesn't seem to give any more information than leaving your parents and cleaving to your husband/wife... so I keep falling away from the belief that you have to be married (not saying one shouldn't or that it's better not to be) before living together and taking each other as husband/wife. I can't see God deeming their relationship sinful as others have thought it to be...

So why can't they do it legally? If sex is outside marriage it is sin, and someone can't hold to the primise, that hey, in the eyes of Jesus we are married. Other people are watching, doesn't the Lord tell us to even obstain from the appearance of sin, that wouldn't be a good testimony. No one has to have a large elaborate marriage, anyone can go down to the court house. Some people call themselves married so they can continue to collect the same amount in SS benefits-is that really right-it's not a good testimony.

They are in the process of doing it legally. the man's wife left him and it took her a long time to even start wanting to file divorce papers and go through with all of the hassle. That is a good point on where Christ says to avoid the appearance of sin, and that leads me to ask if the two have made a covenant before the Lord and the people around them, are they sinning?

You can't enter into a covenant with another if the original is not broken. If the wife didn't file, the husband should have been down at the court house-does he not have responsibility in the matter. If the devorcement is not final, he and his new girl are living in adultry and fornication. It is sin and it is wrong. This is what the word of God tells me.It will affect their marriage in the long run. At least they are attempting to make it right-but I would repent and move apart from one another, till the matter with the devorce is final, marital counseling is completed (i would recommend) and should be done, and marriage is final.

So everyone else who look on the matter is in sin (this still shows that the mindset that you hold to-I'm not responsible for my actions-thus everyone else is wrong-hum???), and please, keep in mind, unbelievers watch, babes in Christ are watching too. No sin lies at their door step and discernment is given to those who know the Lord, but sowing confusion into those who don't know the Lord and calling something right that is wrong-is wrong.

The word of God declares what is sin and the word of God judges people. Can you not discern the matter?????


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Posted

Candi 770, your reply brings a verse to mind:

Luke 16:16 He said to them, "You are the ones who justify yourselves in the eyes of men, but God knows your hearts. What is highly valued among men is detestable in God's sight.

Guest nicholus
Posted

Well I belive that if you have intercourse with someone then you're married to them because (especially if you are a virgin) you have given yourself frelly to them.


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Posted
Well I belive that if you have intercourse with someone then you're married to them because (especially if you are a virgin) you have given yourself frelly to them.

What was your process in arriving at this conclusion? Were there some specific passages that led you to this conclusion?


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Posted
Well I belive that if you have intercourse with someone then you're married to them because (especially if you are a virgin) you have given yourself frelly to them.

John 4:17-18 Go and get your husband," Jesus told her. I don't have a husband," the woman replied. Jesus said,"You're right! You don't have a husband-for you had five husbands, and you aren't even married to the man you're living with now. You certainly spoke the truth!"

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