Why Does Jeus Refer To His Mother As "Woman"?

[Guest shiloh357]

Why does Jesus refer to his mother as "woman"? John 19:26 is one example ,but it seems He did it a few times. Shiloh62

Perhaps it could be that even though she was in the blood line of David she was not actually related to Jesus in a physical sense. Because after all she was a surrogate carrier/mother of the Son of God and not actually a genetic contributer.

Yes, Jesus was related to her in a physical sense. Mary was of the bloodline of David otherwise Jesus would not have been of David's bloodline.

Joseph was the one who was not the genetic contributer. Mary was not a surrogate mother. That is just unbiblical through and through.

You need to get your facts straight, buddy.

[larryt]

The term "gunai" is used 221 times in the NT and is translated woman 129 times and wife 92 times. I do not find that it is used as a term of endearment as opposed to anything derogatory. It is a neutral term denoting a woman or wife, it is the common word for woman.

In the context of John 2 it is completely reasonable to conclude that Jesus was in fact letting us know that His mother had no more privilege than any other saint and has no more special place in heaven than any other saint. Mary was like any other woman, a sinner that needed salvation. God in His sovereignty chose her to be the mother of our Lord. God could have chosen anyone He willed. To make Mary out to be a co-redeemer/mediatrix is nowhere found in scripture.

If the term means "dear lady" let's insert it in the following verses and see how it fits. It is the same exact word found in John 2.

Mt 5:28 But I say unto you, That whosoever looketh on a woman(dear lady) to lust after her hath committed adultery with her already in his heart.

Mr 10:12 And if a woman(dear lady) shall put away her husband, and be married to another, she committeth adultery.

Lu 22:57 And he denied him, saying, Woman(dear lady), I know him not.

Joh 8:4 They say unto him, Master, this woman(dear lady) was taken in adultery, in the very act.

Do not look for teachers that will tickle your itching ears.

LT

The problem with your analysis is that it fails to take context into consideration. For example, take the English world "love."

Let's say you are an immigrant from Poland and you have a very limited understanding of English. Your only understanding of the word "love" is in the erotic sense, bewteen a man and a woman.

Given your limited understanding of that word, imagine the confusion you might experience if you overhear someone saying that they "love" their dog or that they "love" son or daughter.

Given the fact that you would be unfamiliar with the different uses of the word love, and how differently it would be understood in other contexts, it would seem unsavory to you that a person might "love" their own child.

The same rules apply here. Word usage always trumps word meaning in exegesis. You cannot just run and grab a bunch of verses to prove how a word is to be understood. The internal context of a passage MUST be the element used to understand how a speaker and/or writer is to be understood.

Furhtermore, it is opinion of every major, important scholar/commentator that is this is being used by Jesus as a term of endearment and not as a neutral or disrespectful term.

Sorry Larry, but you are simply not a competent exegete.

Sorry shiloh but you seldom back up any of your statement and most often come accross as THE AUTHORITY figure. But I did look up the commentaries that I have and they say just the opposite. The word is neutral. Never as a term of endearment.

Matthew Henry

He calls her woman, not mother, not out of any disrespect to her, but because mother would have been a cutting word to her that was already wounded to the heart with grief; like Isaac saying to Abraham, My father. He speaks as one that was now no more in this world, but was already dead to those in it that were dearest to him. His speaking in this seemingly slight manner to his mother, as he had done formerly, was designed to obviate and give a check to the undue honours which he foresaw would be given to her in the Romish church, as if she were a joint purchaser with him in the honours of the Redeemer.

John Gill

Christ calls her not mother, but woman; not out of disrespect to her, or as ashamed of her; but partly that he might not raise, or add strength to her passions, by a tenderness of speaking; and partly to conceal her from the mob, and lest she should be exposed to their rude insults; as also to let her know that all natural relation was now ceasing between them; though this is a title he sometimes used to give her before.

The Four-Fold Gospel Commentary

Woman, behold thy son! By using the title "woman" Jesus addressed his mother at the end of his ministry with the same word which he had used at its beginning. {See TFG "Joh 2:4"} Thus he cut her off from all parental authority over him.

PNT notes(Peoples NT)

Woman, what have I do to with thee? These words in our language sound harsh and almost rude, but the [Greek] term [gune] rendered woman was respectful and gentle (#Joh 19:26). This language, partly a rebuke, to Mary, shows very plainly that the Catholic fiction of Mary being immaculate, the "Queen of Heaven," and "the Mother of God," is all nonsensical.

This is in no wise used as a term of endearment. I would like to see a quote from a commentary of a respected commentator if you can. Making such statements as "every major, important scholar/commentator" is just false as I have listed 4 that do not show this. And gross generalizations are never accurate.

And your ad hominim statement about my exegesis is just that Ad hominim. It is you who is the poor exegete.

The most you could say is that there are others who disagree.

LT

[larryt]

The term "gunai" is used 221 times in the NT and is translated woman 129 times and wife 92 times. I do not find that it is used as a term of endearment as opposed to anything derogatory. It is a neutral term denoting a woman or wife, it is the common word for woman.

In the context of John 2 it is completely reasonable to conclude that Jesus was in fact letting us know that His mother had no more privilege than any other saint and has no more special place in heaven than any other saint. Mary was like any other woman, a sinner that needed salvation. God in His sovereignty chose her to be the mother of our Lord. God could have chosen anyone He willed. To make Mary out to be a co-redeemer/mediatrix is nowhere found in scripture.

If the term means "dear lady" let's insert it in the following verses and see how it fits. It is the same exact word found in John 2.

Mt 5:28 But I say unto you, That whosoever looketh on a woman(dear lady) to lust after her hath committed adultery with her already in his heart.

Mr 10:12 And if a woman(dear lady) shall put away her husband, and be married to another, she committeth adultery.

Lu 22:57 And he denied him, saying, Woman(dear lady), I know him not.

Joh 8:4 They say unto him, Master, this woman(dear lady) was taken in adultery, in the very act.

Do not look for teachers that will tickle your itching ears.

LT

Keep searching, Larry. Try Matthew 15:28 where Jesus says:

Then Jesus answered and said to her,

[Guest shiloh357]

The term "gunai" is used 221 times in the NT and is translated woman 129 times and wife 92 times. I do not find that it is used as a term of endearment as opposed to anything derogatory. It is a neutral term denoting a woman or wife, it is the common word for woman.

In the context of John 2 it is completely reasonable to conclude that Jesus was in fact letting us know that His mother had no more privilege than any other saint and has no more special place in heaven than any other saint. Mary was like any other woman, a sinner that needed salvation. God in His sovereignty chose her to be the mother of our Lord. God could have chosen anyone He willed. To make Mary out to be a co-redeemer/mediatrix is nowhere found in scripture.

If the term means "dear lady" let's insert it in the following verses and see how it fits. It is the same exact word found in John 2.

Mt 5:28 But I say unto you, That whosoever looketh on a woman(dear lady) to lust after her hath committed adultery with her already in his heart.

Mr 10:12 And if a woman(dear lady) shall put away her husband, and be married to another, she committeth adultery.

Lu 22:57 And he denied him, saying, Woman(dear lady), I know him not.

Joh 8:4 They say unto him, Master, this woman(dear lady) was taken in adultery, in the very act.

Do not look for teachers that will tickle your itching ears.

LT

Keep searching, Larry. Try Matthew 15:28 where Jesus says:

Then Jesus answered and said to her,

[larryt]

1Co 2:14 But the natural man receiveth not the things of the Spirit of God: for they are foolishness unto him: neither can he know [them], because they are spiritually discerned.

LT

Excellent Larry! A nice spiritual jab.... Yes, I was venting a bit but in analysis we need to know that true knowledge comes from grace from the Holy Spirit and not our own intellectual prowess.

Also, in regards to the subject, I think people might have missed my point since I wrote so much. My conclusion on the issue is that Christ is using the term "woman" in this way: "And I will put enmity between your seed and the woman (ultimately Mother Mary) and between thy seed and and her seed: it shall bruise thy head, and thou shalt bruise his heel. (Genesis 3:15) Christ is returning to Genesis and that the promise has been fulfilled. Nothing in the Bible is coincidence.

- Oak

It wasn't meant to be a jab. And I apologize for being blunt and straight forward. Your post went in various directions. I agree completely that knowledge comes ONLY AND ENTIRELY by the grace of God.

I can see how someone could come to the conclusion that John 19 is referring back to Genesis but that is strictly a Catholic doctrine. The commentaries that I have say that it is referring to the woman in general which would fit with the neutral rendering of the word gunai in the NT.

LT

[larryt]

The term "gunai" is used 221 times in the NT and is translated woman 129 times and wife 92 times. I do not find that it is used as a term of endearment as opposed to anything derogatory. It is a neutral term denoting a woman or wife, it is the common word for woman.

In the context of John 2 it is completely reasonable to conclude that Jesus was in fact letting us know that His mother had no more privilege than any other saint and has no more special place in heaven than any other saint. Mary was like any other woman, a sinner that needed salvation. God in His sovereignty chose her to be the mother of our Lord. God could have chosen anyone He willed. To make Mary out to be a co-redeemer/mediatrix is nowhere found in scripture.

If the term means "dear lady" let's insert it in the following verses and see how it fits. It is the same exact word found in John 2.

Mt 5:28 But I say unto you, That whosoever looketh on a woman(dear lady) to lust after her hath committed adultery with her already in his heart.

Mr 10:12 And if a woman(dear lady) shall put away her husband, and be married to another, she committeth adultery.

Lu 22:57 And he denied him, saying, Woman(dear lady), I know him not.

Joh 8:4 They say unto him, Master, this woman(dear lady) was taken in adultery, in the very act.

Do not look for teachers that will tickle your itching ears.

LT

Keep searching, Larry. Try Matthew 15:28 where Jesus says:

Then Jesus answered and said to her,

[OneLight]

The term "gunai" is used 221 times in the NT and is translated woman 129 times and wife 92 times. I do not find that it is used as a term of endearment as opposed to anything derogatory. It is a neutral term denoting a woman or wife, it is the common word for woman.

In the context of John 2 it is completely reasonable to conclude that Jesus was in fact letting us know that His mother had no more privilege than any other saint and has no more special place in heaven than any other saint. Mary was like any other woman, a sinner that needed salvation. God in His sovereignty chose her to be the mother of our Lord. God could have chosen anyone He willed. To make Mary out to be a co-redeemer/mediatrix is nowhere found in scripture.

If the term means "dear lady" let's insert it in the following verses and see how it fits. It is the same exact word found in John 2.

Mt 5:28 But I say unto you, That whosoever looketh on a woman(dear lady) to lust after her hath committed adultery with her already in his heart.

Mr 10:12 And if a woman(dear lady) shall put away her husband, and be married to another, she committeth adultery.

Lu 22:57 And he denied him, saying, Woman(dear lady), I know him not.

Joh 8:4 They say unto him, Master, this woman(dear lady) was taken in adultery, in the very act.

Do not look for teachers that will tickle your itching ears.

LT

Keep searching, Larry. Try Matthew 15:28 where Jesus says:

Then Jesus answered and said to her, “O woman, great is your faith! Let it be to you as you desire.” And her daughter was healed from that very hour.

Nobody is looking for their ears tickled or itched, but for the meaning behind a word.

In Matt. 15:28 "woman" is still neutral but there is the interjection "O" that does add some emphasis. This does not prove that the term woman is used as a term of endearment.

I am constantly amazed at people that read more into a verse than what is there to support their human reasoning.

LT

Just because the word "O" is an interjection (Strong's 5599), it does not remove the word "woman", which is the subject matter of the expression and directly addresses the subject. Together, there is term of endearment.

If I were to say, "Oh, Honey" or just "Honey", does not the word "Honey" still have the same meaning? The word "Oh" does place emphasis on Honey, but does not change the endearment of the word. What does change the meaning is how the word is being used.

[larryt]

The term "gunai" is used 221 times in the NT and is translated woman 129 times and wife 92 times. I do not find that it is used as a term of endearment as opposed to anything derogatory. It is a neutral term denoting a woman or wife, it is the common word for woman.

In the context of John 2 it is completely reasonable to conclude that Jesus was in fact letting us know that His mother had no more privilege than any other saint and has no more special place in heaven than any other saint. Mary was like any other woman, a sinner that needed salvation. God in His sovereignty chose her to be the mother of our Lord. God could have chosen anyone He willed. To make Mary out to be a co-redeemer/mediatrix is nowhere found in scripture.

If the term means "dear lady" let's insert it in the following verses and see how it fits. It is the same exact word found in John 2.

Mt 5:28 But I say unto you, That whosoever looketh on a woman(dear lady) to lust after her hath committed adultery with her already in his heart.

Mr 10:12 And if a woman(dear lady) shall put away her husband, and be married to another, she committeth adultery.

Lu 22:57 And he denied him, saying, Woman(dear lady), I know him not.

Joh 8:4 They say unto him, Master, this woman(dear lady) was taken in adultery, in the very act.

Do not look for teachers that will tickle your itching ears.

LT

Keep searching, Larry. Try Matthew 15:28 where Jesus says:

Then Jesus answered and said to her,

[Massorite]

Why does Jesus refer to his mother as "woman"? John 19:26 is one example ,but it seems He did it a few times. Shiloh62

Perhaps it could be that even though she was in the blood line of David she was not actually related to Jesus in a physical sense. Because after all she was a surrogate carrier/mother of the Son of God and not actually a genetic contributer.

Yes, Jesus was related to her in a physical sense. Mary was of the bloodline of David otherwise Jesus would not have been of David's bloodline.

Joseph was the one who was not the genetic contributer. Mary was not a surrogate mother. That is just unbiblical through and through.

You need to get your facts straight, buddy.

Can't you ever make a reply without insulting the person you are replying to. For a fact your replies are not the kind of replies one would expect from a Christian. But they are the kind of insulting replies I would expect from a Heathen and not worth an answer.

[OneLight]

The term "gunai" is used 221 times in the NT and is translated woman 129 times and wife 92 times. I do not find that it is used as a term of endearment as opposed to anything derogatory. It is a neutral term denoting a woman or wife, it is the common word for woman.

In the context of John 2 it is completely reasonable to conclude that Jesus was in fact letting us know that His mother had no more privilege than any other saint and has no more special place in heaven than any other saint. Mary was like any other woman, a sinner that needed salvation. God in His sovereignty chose her to be the mother of our Lord. God could have chosen anyone He willed. To make Mary out to be a co-redeemer/mediatrix is nowhere found in scripture.

If the term means "dear lady" let's insert it in the following verses and see how it fits. It is the same exact word found in John 2.

Mt 5:28 But I say unto you, That whosoever looketh on a woman(dear lady) to lust after her hath committed adultery with her already in his heart.

Mr 10:12 And if a woman(dear lady) shall put away her husband, and be married to another, she committeth adultery.

Lu 22:57 And he denied him, saying, Woman(dear lady), I know him not.

Joh 8:4 They say unto him, Master, this woman(dear lady) was taken in adultery, in the very act.

Do not look for teachers that will tickle your itching ears.

LT

Keep searching, Larry. Try Matthew 15:28 where Jesus says:

Then Jesus answered and said to her,