Divorce permiited Deut 24:1 ?

[JCISGD]

I would like to discuss with others the assertions of Ps/Evangelist ? Ted Weiland and glean here others knowledge of hebrew/greek etc to find out if he is in or out of the ballpark so to speak. In other words i want to bypass alot of study and rely on that of others here as i have no learning on either and very little of historic Church teaching on the subject of MDR.

I wont be quoting him so please do a web search to see for yourself, but if someone wants to post a link that would be helpful. ( i still cant post links arrghh)

From what i understand the core of it is that the OT law (imo,this is not talking about cerimonal law) must line up with NT commands and vice versa or else Jesus was contadicting Himself and the Father. Remember Jesus said not one jot of the Law would be done away with.

In Duet 24:1 God through Moses makes allowance for divorce, (even though it was because of hardness of heart).

Hebrew in OT the word for Divorce is Keriythuwth but the word for Put Away is Shalach.

Keriythuwth used only 3 times in the bible ?, Dt 24:1, Is 50:1 and Jer 3:8.

Greek in NT the word for Divorce is Apostasion but the word for Put Away is Apolusse.

Malachi 2:16 uses the word Shalach, therefore it does not say God hates Divorce/Keriythuwth but that God "hates Shalach/putting away"

IMO God does hate divorce/Keriythuwth, but He is not the author of confusion and has through Moses given allowance for divorce, not as a free for all, but for the sake of peace (Paul in 1 Cor 7:15), and/or the protection of women being cast out by hard hearted men Duet 24:1, Mat19:8.

The above understanding of divorce vs putting away, does seem to clarify many difficulties i have had trying to make sense of this topic, but i am aware that the words of one can sound wise, but another comes along and uncovers his error.

What are others thoughts on this ? I dont mean are you for or against, i want to know if it has error and if so why.

It always bothered me that Jesus said "whoever divorces his wife except for porenia/fornication, causes her to commit adultery" Mat 5:32

As i asked myself "how is she caused to commit adultery" couldnt she remain single rather than break the law of God ? even if admittedly this could be a very strong hardship.

And Paul does allow for unbelieving spouses to depart.1 Cor 7:15 If divorce was not expected, would this then mean the believer had to remain single unless the unbeliever got saved and wanted to come back?

Is then adultery only sex/marriage to another while not divorced?

But what about Rom 7:1+2 ? Is this not taking into account of a husband who divorces her ?

Scholars please ?

[humbleseeker]

I think alot of divorced Christians struggle with the interprations of these scriptures. I am divorced, I also believe that I am suppose to remarry I am 29 years old and my wife left me for another man when I was stationed in south korea. I returned to her preg by another man. since then I have had great depression, anger and backslid came back backslid and so on. God new I had to get out of the city I was in I was seeing a woman who lived about a hour from my home town and I had lost my Job, and decided to move out to the country in a small town of about 1000 people. Things worked out perfectly I found a apartment so dirt cheap I couoldnt believe it and was just a couple houses from a small Methodist church. regardless of the interpreations God said "it is not good for man to be alone." I have been given a second chance in life. There are many teachers who have been divorced. I have faith that I am doing the right thing by marrying again. I also since I was 16 felt a call to be in full time ministry. I have allowed myself to be pulled in other directions, and I am currently trying to gain ground again. When all is said and done I can only throw my hand in the air and trust God.

[Openly Curious]

Romans 7:4--"Wherefore, my brethren, ye also are become dead to the law by the body of Christ; that ye should be married to another, even to him who is raised from the dead, that we should bring forth fruit unto God."

We are dead to the law by the body of Christ set free to marry another. To bring forth fruit unto God,

oc

[Smalcald]

Is he divorced?

[JCISGD]

Im not really wanting opinions, nor am i trying to assert anything one way or the other. Ive turned over a new leaf

What im asking is, is he correct about the use of the words "Keriythuwth" meaning "Divorce" and "Shalach" meaning "Put away" in the OT and in the NT "Apostasion" meaning "Divorce" and "Apolusse meaning "Put away" ?

Also any opinions/light shed on the other questions i have voiced.

I would like comment on the testimony of J M Humphries on the "Spirit of Hosea" website. It is very striking and does not appear to be the words of a rash man. Keep in mind that he wrestled with the issue for two years before making the descision he did.

[Openly Curious]

Is he divorced?

No, it is us that was seperated and was freed from the law in order that we can be remarried again as you've been forgiven from all past sins.

So no, he is not divorced.

The scripture in Romans 7:4 should bring comfort to those who have been divorced before as it is Christ who has released us from the law through his death.

Like those in this chapter the law was in effect as the marriage contract by law. But if the spouse died then the marriage contract by law was no longer in effect for they were free to remarry and Christ died releasing us through Christ from being bound any longer to make our own decision.

[Botz]

..I must be missing something here.

[JCISGD]

..I must be missing something here.

Me too Botz Perhaps OC can elaborate, as for Smalcald i think he was asking if Ted Weiland was a divorced person ? I dont know.

[JCISGD]

Is he divorced?

No, it is us that was seperated and was freed from the law in order that we can be remarried again as you've been forgiven from all past sins.

So no, he is not divorced.

The scripture in Romans 7:4 should bring comfort to those who have been divorced before as it is Christ who has released us from the law through his death.

Like those in this chapter the law was in effect as the marriage contract by law. But if the spouse died then the marriage contract by law was no longer in effect for they were free to remarry and Christ died releasing us through Christ from being bound any longer to make our own decision.

hi OC did you read the Ted Weilands article on it, i think its important to calmly look at all the evidences provided before commenting unless you want to enlighten me of my questions in OP.

[Fez]

Mat 19:3 And Pharisees came up to him and tested him by asking, "Is it lawful to divorce one's wife for any cause?"

Mat 19:4 He answered, "Have you not read that he who created them from the beginning made them male and female,

Mat 19:5 and said, 'Therefore a man shall leave his father and his mother and hold fast to his wife, and the two shall become one flesh'?

Mat 19:6 So they are no longer two but one flesh. What therefore God has joined together, let not man separate."

Mat 19:7 They said to him, "Why then did Moses command one to give a certificate of divorce and to send her away?"

Mat 19:8 He said to them, "Because of your hardness of heart Moses allowed you to divorce your wives, but from the beginning it was not so.

Mat 19:9 And I say to you: whoever divorces his wife, except for sexual immorality, and marries another, commits adultery."

I think this goes a way to answer the Deut 24:1 question?