Which Bible Version can you recommend (KJV, NIV, NKJV, etc)

[Deborah_]

16 minutes ago, Butero said:

 

Now that we have gotten past that, the next time someone asks if you are saved, you can tell them no but you are being saved. 

The best answer to that question is Bishop Ryle's: "I have been saved; I am being saved; and I will be saved." (and since he was writing in the 19th century, he can't have been using the NIV!)

"It is by grace you have been saved, through faith." (Ephesians 2:8 NIV)

"For the message of the cross is foolishness to those who are perishing, but to us who are being saved it is the power of God." (I Corinthians 1:18 NIV) 

"If you declare with your mouth, 'Jesus is Lord', and believe in your heart that God raised Him from the dead, you will be saved." (Romans 10:9 NIV)

Am I saved? Yes, definitely - in the past (when I put my faith in Christ), in the present (because I'm walking the narrow road to salvation) and in the future (when Jesus returns). 

[manuelf324]

2 hours ago, Butero said:

Thank you so much for having the courage to come in here and take a stand for the pure Word of God.  You will find that there are angry wolves among the sheep who will attack you, but even though you are in the minority, you are not alone.  I remain KJV only and so does Ezra.  You entered into a battlefield, but the Lord will uphold you if you trust in him. 

By the way, that was a rather important distinction in the text of the KJV and the text in those other translations, including the NKJV.  I have looked at the NKJV as the least corrupt modern English translation, but it is far from perfect, and we would all do better to remain using the 1611 KJV or the Authorized KJV Bible.  God bless you for your faithfulness to stand up for what is right. 

Amen Praise the Lord ye shall know the truth and the truth shall make you free 

[manuelf324]

30 minutes ago, Butero said:

This morning, I had just asked the Lord to give me wisdom to defend his Word, and he gave me insight into something I hadn't noticed before.  I also asked for him to send additional assistance to help out in this battle, and then you showed up.  The Lord is good. 

Amen Praise the Lord you used capital W for Word that Jesus Christ by the way. All Catholic bible have that name for Jesus in lower case w.

John  1:1  In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.   Jesus is the Word made flesh

43 John  1:14  And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth

Mark  11:24  Therefore I say unto you, What things soever ye desire, when ye pray, believe that ye receive them, and ye shall have them.

  Expect your prayers to be answered 

KJV  James  1:5 If any of you lack wisdom, let him ask of God, that giveth to all men liberally, and upbraideth not; and it shall be given him

In whom are hid all the treasures of wisdom and knowledge.   

 

Edited April 25, 2016 by manuelf324

[Deborah_]

36 minutes ago, Butero said:

I figured someone would jump in and defend that major change too.  It actually contradicts the other scriptures you posted.  You are either saved or you are not.  If you are being saved, you are not saved.  How many times has a person asked if you know beyond a shadow of a doubt you are saved, and then promised that you can know for sure?  If you go with the NIV, all you can say is you don't know because in one place you were saved, in another you are being saved and in yet another you will be saved.  More of the folly of the modern translations, and this one does effect a major doctrine of the Christian faith that should meet up to Saved34's qualifications.  Perhaps he can show how down for the struggle he is by changing his user name to BeingSaved34?  It would certainly send a clear message his heels are dug in. 

If you compare Ephesians 2:8 ("ye are saved") with Romans 10:9 ("thou shalt be saved") in the KJV, is that not equally 'confusing'? Why is one confusing and not the other - unless you're prejudiced? It doesn't look to me as if the modern translations have made any difference there. If Bishop Ryle was 'confused' about his salvation (and I don't think he was), it must have been the KJV that confused him.

[manuelf324]

It probably confused the Bishop because hes not saved or his heart  harden through self Righteousness

If you stop being like Satan who omits the context of Scripture. 

Actually read the whole body Romans 10:9 is Paul saying IF you confess that Jesus Christ is Lord. You will be saved. Thou shalt means, " you will" 

KJV has dozens upon dozens of Scripture that states salvation is A one tim occurrence. Here's one of them. I chose this because the LEGALISTIC HERETIKS WILL TAKE THIS APART BUT THE SAVED KNOWS THAT THIS SALVATION 

KJV 2Cor 5:17 Therefore if any man be in Christ, he is a new creature: old things are passed away; behold, all things are become new.   

God WILL SHUT DOWN YOUR INTERPRETATION OF THE KJV AS JUDGEMENT You obey the Bible from the heart only (Romans) 

1Cor  2:14  But the natural man(lost)  receiveth not the things of the Spirit of God: for they are foolishness unto him: neither can he know them,(spirit of confusion)  because they are spiritually discerned.  

The KJV Bible is for the saved ONLY! !  GOD BLINDS THE LOST SPIRITUALLY AND ESPECIALLY THOSE WHO BLASPHEME HIS WORD YOUR BETTER OF BLASPHEME HIS NAME 

KJV Psalms  138:2 I will worship toward thy holy temple, and praise thy name for thy lovingkindness and for thy truth: for thou hast MAGNIFIED  thy WORD  ABOVE  all thy NAME 

 

Edited April 25, 2016 by manuelf324

[Deborah_]

2 minutes ago, Butero said:

The context is different.  In the one case, it is speaking of a person who is saved, and in the other case it is speaking of someone who is not a Christian and how they can be saved.  This isn't even close to a valid comparison. 

The same argument applies in the NIV. 

[manuelf324]

SATAN FROM THE BEGINNING HAS BEEN THE CORRUPTER OF THE WORD OF GOD. He was corrupting Gods word before there was even a Bible 

KJV Genesis  3:5 For God doth know that in the day ye eat thereof, then your eyes shall be opened, and ye shall be as gods, knowing good and evil.

WATCH OUT FOR KJV PERVERTERS WHO DESTROY YOUR FAITH IN KJV

Luke  8:12 Those by the way side are they that hear; then cometh the DEVIL and taketh away the WORD out of their HEARTS,  lest they should believe and be saved. KJV PERVERTERS 

 

Edited April 25, 2016 by manuelf324

[Deborah_]

Check out the facts first before spreading slander. For example:

"Sought counsel from a lesbian in the translation of I Corinth 6:9 making it ambiguously pro-gay"

"Do not be deceived: neither the sexually immoral nor idolaters nor adulterers nor men who have sex with men.... will inherit the kingdom of God."

Um... I'm sorry, but I don't see anything ambiguous or 'pro-gay' about that. 

[Deborah_]

2 minutes ago, Butero said:

In the case of Romans 10:9, you are correct, but in the case of 1 Corinthians 1:18, you are not.  This makes it appear that salvation is a process, and we are not actually saved, but are in the process of being saved.  This contradicts Ephesians 2:8 in the NIV that indicates we were already saved in past tense. 

"This makes it appear that salvation is a process"

Not necessarily. 'Us' is plural. In this particular passage Paul might well be referring to people who are being saved, one after the other, over a period of time. Suppose I was describing a baptismal service, for example. I could quite correctly say "people are being baptised" even though baptism is a one-off event and not an ongoing process. 

In other words, this verse could be interpreted either way.

It all depends on how you define 'salvation'. Is it just another word for justification? Or does it also comprise our sanctification? James seems to think that it does (James 2:14).

[Deborah_]

11 minutes ago, Butero said:

That is actually not correct.  The word translated here to mean "men who have sex with men" was more correctly translated effeminate.  There is a difference.  A man can be effeminate and not be having sex with men.  Also remember that the woman who worked with the NIV translators was a lesbian, not a man having sex with men. 

"Men who have sex with men" covers two Greek words, not just the one the KJV translates as "effeminate". As to which translation is 'more correct', I will defer to the Greek scholars. Here is a translators footnote from the NET Bible:

 

 

Quote

Quote

This term is sometimes rendered “effeminate,” although in contemporary English usage such a translation could be taken to refer to demeanor rather than behavior. BDAG 613 s.v. μαλακός 2 has “pert. to being passive in a same-sex relationship, effeminate esp. of catamites, of men and boys who are sodomized by other males in such a relationship.” L&N 88.281 states, “the passive male partner in homosexual intercourse – ‘homosexual.’ …As in Greek, a number of other languages also have entirely distinct terms for the active and passive roles in homosexual intercourse.”=92>

I fail to see how this makes the NIV "pro-gay" in any case.

Edited April 25, 2016 by Deborah_