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Posted
On 4/20/2019 at 4:21 PM, BibleStudent100 said:

As we merge from Good Friday to Easter Sunday, do we take the time to differentiate the commemoration of the death of Jesus Christ from the pagan ceremonies that have sprung up around this most holy of events over the centuries?   I wonder how my fellow Christians in this forum distinguish in their personal and church celebrations what is holy from what is not holy regarding Easter.  As a cursory review, please note the following:

  • Easter was “originally the spring festival in honor of the Teutonic goddess of light and spring known in Anglo-Saxon as Eastre.” (The Westminster Dictionary of the Bible) “There is no indication of the observance of the Easter festival in the New Testament.”—Encyclopædia Britannica.
  • The rabbit “was the escort of the Germanic goddess Ostara.”—Funk & Wagnalls Standard Dictionary of Folklore, Mythology and Legend.
  • Eggs “were said to be dyed and eaten at the spring festivals in ancient Egypt, Persia, Greece, and Rome.”—Celebrations.
  • The Easter bonnet originally “was a wreath of flowers or leaves. The circle or crown expressed the round sun and its course in the heavens which brought the return of spring.” The new Easter outfit developed because “it was considered discourteous and therefore bad luck to greet the Scandinavian goddess of Spring, or Eastre, in anything but fresh garb, since the goddess was bestowing one on the earth.”—The Giant Book of Superstitions.
  • Hot cross buns: “Like the Greeks, the Romans ate bread marked with a cross . . . at public sacrifices.” They were eaten by pagan Saxons in honor of Easter.—Encyclopædia Britannica.
  • Sunrise services parallel rites “performed at the vernal equinox welcoming the sun and its great power to bring new life to all growing things.”—Celebrations

In other words, how do you all separate "light from darkness...[and avoid] touching the unclean thing"? (2 Corinthians 6:14-17).  

 

Warm Christian Regards,

 

Just celebrate what Jesus did for at Easter. Christmas also has a pagan renewal. 


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Posted (edited)

3 days 3nights.jpg

MIA TON SABBATON

April 7, 2012

The key to understanding Yehoshua’s (Jesus’) resurrection day phrase from the inspired Word of God for the Greek text verses of Matthew 28:1, Mark 16:2, Luke 24:1, St. John 20:1,19; Acts 20:7, and 1 Corinthians 16:2 follows somewhat as μια τῶν σαββατων’ which is transliterated as mia ton sabbaton and is translated to literally mean as; ‘one of the sabbaths’.

This phrase has been traditionally perceived, interpreted, and understood to read as ‘the first day of the week’ or less commonly as ‘the first of sabbaths’ in anidiomatic fashion where Hebrew weekdays are determined in a referenced order from one weekly Sabbath to the next weekly Sabbath. 

However, the resurrection day phrase the ‘first day of the week’ could have appeared in the Greek as;

πρώτο ημέρα του εβδομάδας’ of the original texts and transliterated as ‘prote hemera tis hebdomata’ but does NOT literally exist anywhere in any shape or form.

Consider specifically in all of the resurrection day passages stating the Koine Greek word ‘σαββατων which is transliterated as sabbaton where the literal English rendering is translated as ‘sabbaths’ and is plural of meaning in line with Greek Syntax rules.

In the key resurrection verse of Matthew 28:1 the original Koine Greek word ‘σαββατων’ appears twice in the same sentence being plural in a literal meaning at both instances, i.e. MTH 28:1.

οψε δε σαββατων τη επιφωσκουση εις μιανσαββατων ηλθεν μαρια η μαγδαληνη και η αλλη μαρια θεωρησαι τον ταφον”
GREEK TEXT – STEPHENS (Editor) 1550 – TEXTUS RECEPTUS

The full sentence of Matthew 28:1 would render closely like;
“Late (οψε) but (δε) sabbaths (σαββατων) to the (τη) lighting-up (επιφωσκουση) into (εις) one of (μιαν) sabbaths (σαββατων) Mary (μαρια) Magdalene (μαγδαληνη) and (και ) the (η) other (αλλη) Mary (μαρια) observed (θεωρησαι) the (τον) sepulchre (ταφον).”

What could this possibly mean according to Greek Syntax where the contrasting ‘sabbaths’ in the very same sentence have a duality of definement with a co-existance between one and another?

Hence, Matthew 28:1 may be describing details in meaning like ; ‘Late (adverb) (post-after-end) (genitive of seperation) more-over (the annual Passover) sabbaths (plural) as it was lighting up (twi-lighting) on one (a cardinal number) of the (a partitive-genitive case function) sabbaths (plural)….’ etc.

Thus we are given a description of time pertaining to an interval when the Passover period was complete and had already finished. e.g. >>>

End (opse-adverbial) the 2 High sabbaths (Nisan 15 & 21  i.e. EX 12:16) of the Passover period onto a weekly sabbath ( 1 0f 7 ) or one sabbath from a ‘week’ of sabbaths within the 50 day counted duration between Passover (from the sheaf offering LEV 23:11,15,16) leading up to Pentecost.’

Thus, Yehoshua (Jesus) would have arrived at Bethany on Friday Nisan 8th being six days before the Passover on Thursday Nisan 14th A.D. 34. He was crucified on Wednesday Nisan 20th in the Passover preparation day (JHN 19:31) to Thursday Nisan 21 (Holy Convocation Day) and would resurrect 3 days and 3 nights later (Sign of Jonah/MTH 12:39, 40) on the weekly sabbath late afternoon of Saturday Nisan 23rd. This day being one integral sabbath in a week of sabbaths (7 weekly sabbaths) within the counted 50 day period leading up to Pentecost i.e. LEV 23:15.

 * To clarify the original intended meaning furthermore behind the mia ton sabbaton phrase, you may view a Word Press article entitled;

 

  A TREATISE ON THE LORD’S DAY

>>> http://pmary65.wordpress.com/

Edited by Justin Adams
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