Yeshua/Jesus

[Dad Ernie]

Greetings Jedi,

We all know what Yahshua's orginal name is and it is in no way a hinderance to our english language. So why do we continue to use his pseudo name when we know his true and orginal name?

If you would do your own research and quit making wild assertions without any foundation, you would come to the same conclusion I and many others have. Hebrew was definately NOT a "dead" language at the time of Jesus. It was the duty of the Jews to keep the OT without corruption. They used it in the Temple without doubt to teach from it. In private and in homes, the Jews learned Hebrew from birth. But the "street language", "business language" and "universal language" at the time was KOINE GREEK.

Now if the writers of the NT saw fit to call Yeshua - IESUS so as to reach the greater number of gentiles, then how can you argue WITH THEM? Your unabashed biasness shows through.

Your Servant in Christ,

Dad Ernie

[Jedi4Yahweh]

Hebrew was definately NOT a "dead" language at the time of Jesus. It was the duty of the Jews to keep the OT without corruption. They used it in the Temple without doubt to teach from it. In private and in homes, the Jews learned Hebrew from birth.

I never said Hebrew was a dead language but contrary that it was alive and well during Yahshua's time and the early church.

They used it in the Temple without doubt to teach from it. In private and in homes, the Jews learned Hebrew from birth. But the "street language", "business language" and "universal language" at the time was KOINE GREEK.

How do you know this? This is complete assumptions! Do all Mexicans run around Mexico speaking English. No they speak spanish and maybe know enough english to buy and sell.

Now if the writers of the NT saw fit to call Yeshua - IESUS so as to reach the greater number of gentiles

How do you know that the orginal writers of the NT did or didnt use IESUS. We dont even have the original letters but only copies of copies the NT. This again is assumptions! You have no foundation at all to base that on.

Tell me why they had to change Yahshua's name to reach gentiles and why didnt they change any of the other hebrew names of the bible? Maybe they could have reached more gentiles if they just changed the whole bible.

Your unabashed biasness shows through

How can I be biased I am neither a Jew nor speak Hebrew but a gentile.

If you would do your own research and quit making wild assertions without any foundation, you would come to the same conclusion I and many others have.

So is Yahshua his name? How is this an assumption to say that Yahshua is his real name and not IESUS?

[Dad Ernie]

Greetings Jedi,

I knew you would jump at my last post without doing any REAL research for yourself. You are blinded by your own ego, your pride is showing through.

For every language, "words have meanings". In English, Jesus is the accepted Name of "Jehovah saves", it is Iesus in Greek and Yeshua in Hebrew. I do not know what it is in Chinese. You apparently neither know, nor understand or are willing to learn, so I will leave you to your own illusions.

Your Servant in Christ,

Dad Ernie

[RGR]

Greetings All,

During the time of Jesus, the predominant language was Koine Greek. In the then "world", this language was spoken by most if not all the nations. The oldest known piece of manuscript of the NT is in Greek. There are many expositors on the web that agree that the NT was most likely written in Greek. That means Paul and all the NT writers wrote to their mostly gentile audience in a language they would understand. Which means that they used the name IESUS, from which we get the English word Jesus.

Now I am not going to go about proving this, but it is reasonable and makes a whole lot of sense.

Blessings,

Dad Ernie

Uho! Is the sky falling? Dad Ernie, I have to agree with your post! That is odd! Or maybe I'm just delusional with having the flu? God bless!

[Jedi4Yahweh]

Greetings Jedi,

I knew you would jump at my last post without doing any REAL research for yourself. You are blinded by your own ego, your pride is showing through.

For every language, "words have meanings". In English, Jesus is the accepted Name of "Jehovah saves", it is Iesus in Greek and Yeshua in Hebrew. I do not know what it is in Chinese. You apparently neither know, nor understand or are willing to learn, so I will leave you to your own illusions.

Your Servant in Christ,

Dad Ernie

Thanks for your judgemental statements and attitude! Bible says blessed are you when people curse you for my NAME sake.

[Dad Ernie]

Greetings Ronald,

Uho!  Is the sky falling?  Dad Ernie, I have to agree with your post!  That is odd!  Or maybe I'm just delusional with having the flu?  God bless!

If we have Jesus in common, then we too will have many things in common. Isn't it great when two brothers can walk together?

Blessings,

Dad Ernie

[Guest yod]

The whole reason that Pharisees came into being was that after the Macabbean Revolt (approx 150 BCE) the jewish culture was assimilating into the culture of the world, Greek. After Alexander the Great had conquored the world, he knew that his legacy was to "civilize" the world by bringing Greek culture to the conquored lands.

He was very favorable to Israel and many jews liked him. They also started adopting the ways of the Greeks and this was "Hellenization"

The Pharisees were the ultra-conservatives of the time and were trying to combat this worldly influence but they were despised as hypocrites by most common folks.

The "official" language may have been Hebrew...and there is good reason to believe that the book of Matthew was originally written in Hebrew.

But the common language of the people of Israel was Aramaic...a hodgepodge of greek, hebrew, and localized dialects.

But the language of the WORLD was Greek. It would make perfect sense for Shaul (Paul) to write in this language because no matter where he sent a letter in this language someone could read it.

Jedi, are you of the opinion that God would not hear our prayers in the name of Jesus?

[nebula]

When I said "transliteration," that means the same thing as John in French becoming Jacques or in Spanish Jose (I believe?). Hey, did you know that James transliterates back to Jacob?

Name transliterations are not the same thing as translations. My name in another language wouldn't be spoken as the translation of the meaning of my name.

The same goes with the name given our Lord. OK?

[Jedi4Yahweh]

When I said "transliteration," that means the same thing as John in French becoming Jacques or in Spanish Jose (I believe?).

[Fewarechosen7F]

When I said "transliteration," that means the same thing as John in French becoming Jacques or in Spanish Jose (I believe?).