How do we live by the Spirit?

[nebula]

We sometimes use the phrase "to fall on" in a sense to confront or attack. I do believe the Spirit is always around us, how else can we justify the omni-present nature of God if it is otherwise, yet I also thing there are times He falls on us, maybe even like a thief in the night.

I think you might be mixing metaphors?

Nor do I think you caught what I was trying to get at.

You have taken the verses about the Spirit being everywhere to say that Jesus is in the unbeliever just like He is in the believer...because He is everywhere.

Yet the Scriptures mention the Spirit "falling on" people.

How can He "fall" where He already is?

The point I am getting at is that the concept of the Spirit dwelling inside one is a different concept than the Spirit being everywhere.

Does an unbeliever have Jesus in his heart?

[Permie]

Christ comes from the Greek christos as you probably already know and means anointed, or the anointed one.

Which is Messiah - mashiach - in Hebrew - the true origin of the word.

Jesus is The Christ, our High Priest and Lord

This does not explain why you worded the sentence - that you would say "Christ" rather than "Jesus."

What's the difference in saying "Christ" versus "Jesus"?

None, really. I had said in that reply I mentioned to you, that to say Jesus is in everyone "to me" means that God's temple is completed within us. I was just being consistent in my postings. From the time Seeker had said/posted "Jesus is in everyone" I had said I would have used different terminology since "to me" it is also biblically consistent.

[OneLight]

I recalled some scripture today in reference to Seeker's claim that Jesus is in everyone, to which I agree as I have stated, but would instead say Christ i.e the Spirit is.

Sorry, but I'm confused by the wording of your sentence.

Are you saying Jesus is not "Christ"? ("Jesus . . . but would instead say Christ i.e the Spirit")

27To whom God would make known what is the riches of the glory of this mystery among the Gentiles; which is Christ in you, the hope of glory:

When I read this, the impression I get is that he is speaking and referring to Christians, not non-Christians.

Just a couple of thoughts, if I may.

The Scriptures explain that the Spirit of God is everywhere, even in the depths of Sheol. So He must be in us in some sense, for this to be true.

Also the Scriptures explain that all things are held together by Him. This also seems to give the impression that in some sense He is everywhere and actively involved.

Also it is written that He stands at the door and knocks and if anyone will hear His voice He will come into them and eat with them. If this is so, then anyone as in everyone must be able to hear His voice.

It seems to me that believer's (that is Christians in the true since of the word) are those that because they believe that He is there, listen to Him. A non-believer would then be someone that does not believe in an omni-present being called God, so even though He maybe talking to them, they are not aware of it because of there disbelief.

So Christian's are those that hear the word of God spoken to them and believe it is God. Isn't this why Abraham was considered righteous? It was not only that he hear the word of the Lord, but also believed that it was the Lord.

Also another comment: Another poster felt that we could not see Christ in unbelievers. This is not what I have experienced. There have been times in my life when someone I know doesn't believe in the Lord has suddenly said something in which I recognized as the voice of the Lord. In the same way, there have been times when those I know are believer's suddenly say something I know is evil.

Remember that Jesus recongized the voice of Satan coming through Peter. Also, consider what happen when the lady told Jesus that even a dog eats the scraps from the masters table. God teaches us in parables, so where did this lady get that little parable? I think Jesus clearly recongized the voice of the Spirit of God coming through this Samaritain lady.

When Christ spoke to Peter, He knew the spirit behind Peters word. That did not mean that Peter had the devil in him. When someone who is an unbeliever speaks something you believe is Christ like, that does not mean that Christ is in that person. You are adding New Age beliefs to scripture. This is very dangerous.

The only why a person can have the Spirit of God in them is if they have accepted Christ as their Savior. There is no other way.

[Permie]

Jesus intimated that not everyone would be able to accept or be able to bear His teachings.

26Even the mystery which hath been hid from ages and from generations, but now is made manifest to his saints:

[Permie]

I recalled some scripture today in reference to Seeker's claim that Jesus is in everyone, to which I agree as I have stated, but would instead say Christ i.e the Spirit is.

Sorry, but I'm confused by the wording of your sentence.

Are you saying Jesus is not "Christ"? ("Jesus . . . but would instead say Christ i.e the Spirit")

27To whom God would make known what is the riches of the glory of this mystery among the Gentiles; which is Christ in you, the hope of glory:

When I read this, the impression I get is that he is speaking and referring to Christians, not non-Christians.

Just a couple of thoughts, if I may.

The Scriptures explain that the Spirit of God is everywhere, even in the depths of Sheol. So He must be in us in some sense, for this to be true.

Also the Scriptures explain that all things are held together by Him. This also seems to give the impression that in some sense He is everywhere and actively involved.

Also it is written that He stands at the door and knocks and if anyone will hear His voice He will come into them and eat with them. If this is so, then anyone as in everyone must be able to hear His voice.

It seems to me that believer's (that is Christians in the true since of the word) are those that because they believe that He is there, listen to Him. A non-believer would then be someone that does not believe in an omni-present being called God, so even though He maybe talking to them, they are not aware of it because of there disbelief.

So Christian's are those that hear the word of God spoken to them and believe it is God. Isn't this why Abraham was considered righteous? It was not only that he hear the word of the Lord, but also believed that it was the Lord.

Also another comment: Another poster felt that we could not see Christ in unbelievers. This is not what I have experienced. There have been times in my life when someone I know doesn't believe in the Lord has suddenly said something in which I recognized as the voice of the Lord. In the same way, there have been times when those I know are believer's suddenly say something I know is evil.

Remember that Jesus recongized the voice of Satan coming through Peter. Also, consider what happen when the lady told Jesus that even a dog eats the scraps from the masters table. God teaches us in parables, so where did this lady get that little parable? I think Jesus clearly recongized the voice of the Spirit of God coming through this Samaritain lady.

When Christ spoke to Peter, He knew the spirit behind Peters word. That did not mean that Peter had the devil in him. When someone who is an unbeliever speaks something you believe is Christ like, that does not mean that Christ is in that person. You are adding New Age beliefs to scripture. This is very dangerous.

The only why a person can have the Spirit of God in them is if they have accepted Christ as their Savior. There is no other way.

Isn't it interesting? Peter had just had a revelation from Our Father. Immediately thereafter Jesus calls him Satan.

Not all who have the Holy Spirit have yet overcome Satan, nor have they the mind of Christ yet either.

[OneLight]

I recalled some scripture today in reference to Seeker's claim that Jesus is in everyone, to which I agree as I have stated, but would instead say Christ i.e the Spirit is.

Sorry, but I'm confused by the wording of your sentence.

Are you saying Jesus is not "Christ"? ("Jesus . . . but would instead say Christ i.e the Spirit")

27To whom God would make known what is the riches of the glory of this mystery among the Gentiles; which is Christ in you, the hope of glory:

When I read this, the impression I get is that he is speaking and referring to Christians, not non-Christians.

Just a couple of thoughts, if I may.

The Scriptures explain that the Spirit of God is everywhere, even in the depths of Sheol. So He must be in us in some sense, for this to be true.

Also the Scriptures explain that all things are held together by Him. This also seems to give the impression that in some sense He is everywhere and actively involved.

Also it is written that He stands at the door and knocks and if anyone will hear His voice He will come into them and eat with them. If this is so, then anyone as in everyone must be able to hear His voice.

It seems to me that believer's (that is Christians in the true since of the word) are those that because they believe that He is there, listen to Him. A non-believer would then be someone that does not believe in an omni-present being called God, so even though He maybe talking to them, they are not aware of it because of there disbelief.

So Christian's are those that hear the word of God spoken to them and believe it is God. Isn't this why Abraham was considered righteous? It was not only that he hear the word of the Lord, but also believed that it was the Lord.

Also another comment: Another poster felt that we could not see Christ in unbelievers. This is not what I have experienced. There have been times in my life when someone I know doesn't believe in the Lord has suddenly said something in which I recognized as the voice of the Lord. In the same way, there have been times when those I know are believer's suddenly say something I know is evil.

Remember that Jesus recongized the voice of Satan coming through Peter. Also, consider what happen when the lady told Jesus that even a dog eats the scraps from the masters table. God teaches us in parables, so where did this lady get that little parable? I think Jesus clearly recongized the voice of the Spirit of God coming through this Samaritain lady.

When Christ spoke to Peter, He knew the spirit behind Peters word. That did not mean that Peter had the devil in him. When someone who is an unbeliever speaks something you believe is Christ like, that does not mean that Christ is in that person. You are adding New Age beliefs to scripture. This is very dangerous.

The only why a person can have the Spirit of God in them is if they have accepted Christ as their Savior. There is no other way.

Isn't it interesting? Peter had just had a revelation from Our Father. Immediately thereafter Jesus calls him Satan.

Not all who have the Holy Spirit have yet overcome Satan, nor have they the mind of Christ yet either.

When Jesus spoke this to Peter, he did not have the Holy Spirit yet. Nobody received the Holy Spirit until Jesus went to the Father. You can read this in John 15 - 15 and Acts 2. When Christ sent the 12 out, all He did was give them power to do His work.

[Permie]

I recalled some scripture today in reference to Seeker's claim that Jesus is in everyone, to which I agree as I have stated, but would instead say Christ i.e the Spirit is.

Sorry, but I'm confused by the wording of your sentence.

Are you saying Jesus is not "Christ"? ("Jesus . . . but would instead say Christ i.e the Spirit")

27To whom God would make known what is the riches of the glory of this mystery among the Gentiles; which is Christ in you, the hope of glory:

When I read this, the impression I get is that he is speaking and referring to Christians, not non-Christians.

Just a couple of thoughts, if I may.

The Scriptures explain that the Spirit of God is everywhere, even in the depths of Sheol. So He must be in us in some sense, for this to be true.

Also the Scriptures explain that all things are held together by Him. This also seems to give the impression that in some sense He is everywhere and actively involved.

Also it is written that He stands at the door and knocks and if anyone will hear His voice He will come into them and eat with them. If this is so, then anyone as in everyone must be able to hear His voice.

It seems to me that believer's (that is Christians in the true since of the word) are those that because they believe that He is there, listen to Him. A non-believer would then be someone that does not believe in an omni-present being called God, so even though He maybe talking to them, they are not aware of it because of there disbelief.

So Christian's are those that hear the word of God spoken to them and believe it is God. Isn't this why Abraham was considered righteous? It was not only that he hear the word of the Lord, but also believed that it was the Lord.

Also another comment: Another poster felt that we could not see Christ in unbelievers. This is not what I have experienced. There have been times in my life when someone I know doesn't believe in the Lord has suddenly said something in which I recognized as the voice of the Lord. In the same way, there have been times when those I know are believer's suddenly say something I know is evil.

Remember that Jesus recongized the voice of Satan coming through Peter. Also, consider what happen when the lady told Jesus that even a dog eats the scraps from the masters table. God teaches us in parables, so where did this lady get that little parable? I think Jesus clearly recongized the voice of the Spirit of God coming through this Samaritain lady.

When Christ spoke to Peter, He knew the spirit behind Peters word. That did not mean that Peter had the devil in him. When someone who is an unbeliever speaks something you believe is Christ like, that does not mean that Christ is in that person. You are adding New Age beliefs to scripture. This is very dangerous.

The only why a person can have the Spirit of God in them is if they have accepted Christ as their Savior. There is no other way.

Isn't it interesting? Peter had just had a revelation from Our Father. Immediately thereafter Jesus calls him Satan.

Not all who have the Holy Spirit have yet overcome Satan, nor have they the mind of Christ yet either.

When Jesus spoke this to Peter, he did not have the Holy Spirit yet. Nobody received the Holy Spirit until Jesus went to the Father. You can read this in John 15 - 15 and Acts 2. When Christ sent the 12 out, all He did was give them power to do His work.

No comment about the second paragraph?

[Gentlewind]

Isn't it interesting? Peter had just had a revelation from Our Father. Immediately thereafter Jesus calls him Satan.

Not all who have the Holy Spirit have yet overcome Satan, nor have they the mind of Christ yet either.

Yes, OneLight, but the second paragraph is still true.

[Gentlewind]

I read your mind, Permie. LOL

[CBE1]

We sometimes use the phrase "to fall on" in a sense to confront or attack. I do believe the Spirit is always around us, how else can we justify the omni-present nature of God if it is otherwise, yet I also thing there are times He falls on us, maybe even like a thief in the night.

I think you might be mixing metaphors?

Nor do I think you caught what I was trying to get at.

You have taken the verses about the Spirit being everywhere to say that Jesus is in the unbeliever just like He is in the believer...because He is everywhere.

Yet the Scriptures mention the Spirit "falling on" people.

How can He "fall" where He already is?

The point I am getting at is that the concept of the Spirit dwelling inside one is a different concept than the Spirit being everywhere.

Does an unbeliever have Jesus in his heart?

I don't think I misunderstood you, and I'm not worried about metaphors but thinking about meanings. I don't think the Spirit of God falls on you like a meteor coming down out of heaven. I believe He is with everyone, or do you not think that He is omni-present?

If He is omni-present, He is with all of us regardless. So then the Spirit "falling" on us, has to do with confronting us, not actually falling as if coming out of heaven. He can't fall on us in the sense you are talking about if He is all ready there, but the general belief that I have found in Christianity (and I agree) is that God is omni-present, so He is all ready everywhere.