Tongues Evidence?

[donfish06]

I agree with you GE...and in Acts 2:4 they did not speak in "unknown" tongues. There were many in Jerusalem from different "tongues" who understood what they were saying. 

 

I guess there aren't any "tongues is evidence" believers here. My questions were mostly towards them.

[donfish06]

I think the question is whether the person who speaks in tongues knows what he is saying or not. It is believe that speaking in tongues is a personal prayer language that only God understands but the evidence for this in the bible isn't really there.

 

In Acts 2, when the gifts of tongues was poured out for the first time, it does appear that the disciples knew what they were saying. So to address Reformed Baptist's question. I believe the tongue is unknown to those who are listening but not to the speaker. There is no instance in the scripture where you could find the holy spirit taking control of an individual and causing them to do or speak things that they do not have any knowledge of or any control of. Only demon possession works like that. 

I don't think the disciples knew what they were saying, but there were people outside who heard them, and they understood. It would be like me speaking spanish (not knowing spanish) and someone who is spanish is nearby to hear. If this were the case, then the act of speaking in tongues was not for me, it was for those who heard it. 

[donfish06]

 

Where in the Bible is it recorded that anyone spoke in unknown tongues upon the baptism of the Holy Ghost?

 

What do you mean by 'unknown' do you mean unknown to the speaker, ie other human language that are in use elsewhere in the world, or do you mean unknown tongues to all who are present, or are you referring to heavenly languages that do not actually correspond to any human language. 

 

it may be interesting to note that the Greek language had a perfectly good word that was well used to describe the ecstatic utterances that were part of Greek temple worship, but Pauland Luke  never once use it, instead they refer to a words whose meaning is in relation to human languages -  γλῶσσα and ἑτερόγλωσσος in such discusions

 

I am referring to someone speaking words that neither them, nor anyone around them can understand. 

[ProphecyKid]

I agree with you GE...and in Acts 2:4 they did not speak in "unknown" tongues. There were many in Jerusalem from different "tongues" who understood what they were saying. 

 

I guess there aren't any "tongues is evidence" believers here. My questions were mostly towards them.

 

 

I think the question is whether the person who speaks in tongues knows what he is saying or not. It is believe that speaking in tongues is a personal prayer language that only God understands but the evidence for this in the bible isn't really there.

 

In Acts 2, when the gifts of tongues was poured out for the first time, it does appear that the disciples knew what they were saying. So to address Reformed Baptist's question. I believe the tongue is unknown to those who are listening but not to the speaker. There is no instance in the scripture where you could find the holy spirit taking control of an individual and causing them to do or speak things that they do not have any knowledge of or any control of. Only demon possession works like that. 

I don't think the disciples knew what they were saying, but there were people outside who heard them, and they understood. It would be like me speaking spanish (not knowing spanish) and someone who is spanish is nearby to hear. If this were the case, then the act of speaking in tongues was not for me, it was for those who heard it. 

 

I really can't see how the disciples could not know what they were saying. 

 

See I believe there is a difference between speaking in tongues and having the gift of tongues. The disciples were given the gift of tongues and thus I believe they had the ability to speak what they needed to speak in other tongues. A tongue in a language, so speaking in tongues could be someone who can speak in many different languages that they have previously learned. 

[Reformed Baptist]

 

 

Where in the Bible is it recorded that anyone spoke in unknown tongues upon the baptism of the Holy Ghost?

 

What do you mean by 'unknown' do you mean unknown to the speaker, ie other human language that are in use elsewhere in the world, or do you mean unknown tongues to all who are present, or are you referring to heavenly languages that do not actually correspond to any human language. 

 

it may be interesting to note that the Greek language had a perfectly good word that was well used to describe the ecstatic utterances that were part of Greek temple worship, but Pauland Luke  never once use it, instead they refer to a words whose meaning is in relation to human languages -  γλῶσσα and ἑτερόγλωσσος in such discusions

 

I am referring to someone speaking words that neither them, nor anyone around them can understand. 

 

But human languages like English, French etc, and not heavenly tongues? 

[donfish06]

But human languages like English, French etc, and not heavenly tongues? 

 I am saying that there is no scriptural references of anyone speaking in "unknown heavenly" tongues

[Guest man]

 

But human languages like English, French etc, and not heavenly tongues? 

 I am saying that there is no scriptural references of anyone speaking in "unknown heavenly" tongues

 

 

 

1 Corinthians 13

1 Though I speak with the tongues of men and of angels, and have not charity, I am become assounding brass, or a tinkling cymbal.

 

 

1 Corinthians 14

2 For he that speaketh in an unknown tongue speaketh not unto men, but unto God: for no man understandeth him; howbeit in the spirit he speaketh mysteries.

 

.

[Joshua-777]

 

 

But human languages like English, French etc, and not heavenly tongues? 

 I am saying that there is no scriptural references of anyone speaking in "unknown heavenly" tongues

 

 

 

1 Corinthians 13

1 Though I speak with the tongues of men and of angels, and have not charity, I am become assounding brass, or a tinkling cymbal.

 

 

 

1 Corinthians 14

2 For he that speaketh in an unknown tongue speaketh not unto men, but unto God: for no man understandeth him; howbeit in the spirit he speaketh mysteries.

 

 

 

 

 

 

1 Corinthians 14:13 Therefore let him who speaks in a tongue pray that he may interpret.  14 For if I pray in a tongue, my spirit prays, but my understanding is unfruitful.  15 What is the conclusion then? I will pray with the spirit, and I will also pray with the understanding. I will sing with the spirit, and I will also sing with the understanding.

 

 

1 Corinthians 14:28 But if there is no interpreter, let him keep silent in church, and let him speak to himself and to God.

 

 

 

 

 

 

[donfish06]

 

 

But human languages like English, French etc, and not heavenly tongues? 

 I am saying that there is no scriptural references of anyone speaking in "unknown heavenly" tongues

 

 

 

1 Corinthians 13

1 Though I speak with the tongues of men and of angels, and have not charity, I am become assounding brass, or a tinkling cymbal.

 

 

1 Corinthians 14

2 For he that speaketh in an unknown tongue speaketh not unto men, but unto God: for no man understandeth him; howbeit in the spirit he speaketh mysteries.

 

.

 

By references I meant instances. There are no instances of it

[Reformed Baptist]

 

But human languages like English, French etc, and not heavenly tongues? 

 I am saying that there is no scriptural references of anyone speaking in "unknown heavenly" tongues

 

I would agree entirely