What is the word of God?

[xyluz]

Regardless of whether the common man had access to the OT or not the OT was the written Word of God. In the middle/dark ages the common man did not have access to the Bible-but that doesn't make the Bible not the Bible. The Word of God remains the word of God regardless of who has access to it and who doesn't.

The word of God is everything God says, and since all scripture is God breathed and useful for doctrine and rebuking, (2 Tim 3:15 I believe) then all scripture is the Word of God, both OT and NT.

 

Actually Pat, i totally agree with you... the word of God is the word of God. But your response is not really addressing the question.

 

Thanks for your opinion. I really appreciate you. 

 

See you in the chat room  

[xyluz]

 

Hope this helps.

• When the apostles talked about the word of God, what were they referring to?
  • What they were referring to was the Talmud and Tanach.
• Obviously it was not the old testament. and there was no new testament then.
  • I disagree. They had no other Word of God to refer to. Even Jesus quoted the OT.
• i believe it was not the old testament because no ordinary person had access to it
  • People were brought up studying the OT, unlike today where families ignore scripture. The father would teach his family.
• they usually say things like: and the word of God grew
  • Where do you find this? Jesus pointed back to the OT many times, explaining what they truly meant.
• "we will give ourselves to the study of the word and prayer"
  • Not sure how this is a question. We do read in 2 Timothy 2:15 "Be diligent to present yourself approved to God, a worker who does not need to be ashamed, rightly dividing the word of truth.", showing that we need to study His words to rightly divide the word of truth, and scripture always give examples as why we pray.
• And i believe they were not referring to Jesus Christ as the word, because of the context of usage.
  • You are forgetting John 1:1-5 "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. He was in the beginning with God. All things were made through Him, and without Him nothing was made that was made. In Him was life, and the life was the light of men. And the light shines in the darkness, and the darkness did not comprehend it."

 

 

Hi. Yes, very helpful... thanks.

 

What they were referring to was the Talmud and Tanach

- ok.

 

 

People were brought up studying the OT, unlike today where families ignore scripture. The father would teach his family.

- Actually, everyone had to go over to the temple to hear the word read to them. not that each family had access to the written word.

 

Where do you find this? Jesus pointed back to the OT many times, explaining what they truly meant.

- Several places actually,  but an example: Acts 12:24 (KJV)

 

Thanks so much. But i'm not sure you fully understand the question. (Its a single question by the way)

[OneLight]

 

Hope this helps.

• When the apostles talked about the word of God, what were they referring to?
  • What they were referring to was the Talmud and Tanach.
• Obviously it was not the old testament. and there was no new testament then.
  • I disagree. They had no other Word of God to refer to. Even Jesus quoted the OT.
• i believe it was not the old testament because no ordinary person had access to it
  • People were brought up studying the OT, unlike today where families ignore scripture. The father would teach his family.
• they usually say things like: and the word of God grew
  • Where do you find this? Jesus pointed back to the OT many times, explaining what they truly meant.
• "we will give ourselves to the study of the word and prayer"
  • Not sure how this is a question. We do read in 2 Timothy 2:15 "Be diligent to present yourself approved to God, a worker who does not need to be ashamed, rightly dividing the word of truth.", showing that we need to study His words to rightly divide the word of truth, and scripture always give examples as why we pray.
• And i believe they were not referring to Jesus Christ as the word, because of the context of usage.
  • You are forgetting John 1:1-5 "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. He was in the beginning with God. All things were made through Him, and without Him nothing was made that was made. In Him was life, and the life was the light of men. And the light shines in the darkness, and the darkness did not comprehend it."

 

Hi. Yes, very helpful... thanks.

 

 

What they were referring to was the Talmud and Tanach

- ok.

 

 

 

 

People were brought up studying the OT, unlike today where families ignore scripture. The father would teach his family.

- Actually, everyone had to go over to the temple to hear the word read to them. not that each family had access to the written word.

 

 

Studying the historical culture will provide a closer understanding that the men were basically the ones who attended the Temple teachings, where the women and children were separated from the men and could not speak.  The men were responsible to teach the family at home, which is why Paul stated that a women needed to remain silent and if they had any questions, to ask their husband at home.  1 Corinthians 14:35

 

 

 

Where do you find this? Jesus pointed back to the OT many times, explaining what they truly meant.

- Several places actually,  but an example: Acts 12:24 (KJV)

 

 

That is speaking of how "The Way" spread by how God was moving, not that the word, as in scripture, was added to. You need to keep the verse in context.

 

Thanks so much. But i'm not sure you fully understand the question. (Its a single question by the way)

 

You are correct.  You placed your statement in bullets, which indicated to me that each bullet was either a question or a statement.  What single questions would that be?  I don't like to assume anything.

[xyluz]

Studying the historical culture will provide a closer understanding that the men were basically the ones who attended the Temple teachings, where the women and children were separated from the men and could not speak.  The men were responsible to teach the family at home, which is why Paul stated that a women needed to remain silent and if they had any questions, to ask their husband at home.  1 Corinthians 14:35

 

**Nice. i agree. my mistake.

 

That is speaking of how "The Way" spread by how God was moving, not that the word, as in scripture, was added to. You need to keep the verse in context.

 

**hmmm thinking about it...

 

You are correct.  You placed your statement in bullets, which indicated to me that each bullet was either a question or a statement.  What single questions would that be?  I don't like to assume anything.

 

What were the apostles referring to when they say "the word of God"?

[The_Patriot21]

I think I answered that question. The word of God-which in the case of the disciples was the OT and everything Jesus said. Today its the entire Bible.

[xyluz]

I think I answered that question. The word of God-which in the case of the disciples was the OT and everything Jesus said. Today its the entire Bible.

 

yes Pat, you did... just wondering

 

- how the disciples expected them to study it since they don't have explicit access to it...

[OneLight]

You are assuming they did not have access to the OT.  They did through the Synagogs. You are correct that not every family had the written words as we do today, which is why is was extremely important that they memorized scripture and pass it down through their family.

[other one]

the Torah was read every sabbath in the synagogue.....    they all had access to hearing the book read.....

 

Maybe that is why it's referred to as the word of God for most people heard the book read rather than reading it.

[Qnts2]

Regardless of whether the common man had access to the OT or not the OT was the written Word of God. In the middle/dark ages the common man did not have access to the Bible-but that doesn't make the Bible not the Bible. The Word of God remains the word of God regardless of who has access to it and who doesn't.

The word of God is everything God says, and since all scripture is God breathed and useful for doctrine and rebuking, (2 Tim 3:15 I believe) then all scripture is the Word of God, both OT and NT.

 

The common man did have access to the OT or more specifically the Torah which is the five books of Moses. It was common to memorize large sections.  Plus, in the synagogues, the OT was read and short teachings or commentaries done. In the NT, Jesus was welcomed and asked to read the Prophets section, and make a commentary. Jesus proclaimed himself to be the subject that the verses were talking about.  

[The_Patriot21]

Qnts, it has already been established that the common people did indeed have access to the OT texts. Sure, the written texts weren't kept in everyones homes-but they were read in the synagogues, and memorized, and then recited to their kids. The text was available to the common man, its a false argument to say they didn't have any access to it.

 

And like I pointed out earlier, even if THEY DIDN'T have access to it, it doesnt mean that its not the word of God in the passage. In the middle ages, only the priesthood had access to the Bible. Well, the Bible was still the Bible, regardless of who had it and who didn't. So saying that the common man "didn't" have access to the text, doesn't, in reality have any bearing one way or another in this discussion, in that regard. 

 

It is possible they were speaking of both in some cases-because obviously, if Jesus said it, it was the word of God. But so was the OT texts. So its possible they were referring to both the words of Jesus and the OT, and its possible they were referring only to the OT text, but it is highly unlikely that they were referring to only the words of Jesus. After all, John 1:1 talks about the beginning of time-as in previous, Paul, in timothy, is talking about all scripture, Paul also mentions how important the law is and what it is to be used for in Romans, and like has been previously mentioned Jesus Himself quoted the OT several times. 

 

So please don't say that the common man didn't have access-they did. The culture was different-the torah and other writings were kept in scrolls, and handwritten, they were expensive and time consuming to make and took up a lot of room, so no, the individual people did not have their own copy. But keep in mind, their "church" services were not like ours, it wasnt go sunday morning, get half an hour of music and a 20 minute sermon, it was a hours upon hours affair, and the scribes would sit there and read the scripture to the people-just the straight scripture-and the people would listen, and they would memorize it, and bring it home to their kids. So they did have access-they knew the scripture-probably better then most of us do today, with all our 5 gazillion translations and a bible on every bookshelf.