Anyone know?

[enoob57]

In the KJV the translators translated the word πνεύματος as  Spirit and other times Ghost does anyone have any resource on this or know why?

 

 

[NOONE7]

49 minutes ago, enoob57 said:

In the KJV the translators translated the word πνεύματος as  Spirit and other times Ghost does anyone have any resource on this or know why?

 

 

 

Not sure why myself.  After briefly checking on google.  It appears Ghost and Spirit could be used in the same manner.  Accept that sometimes Spirit could be used to identify a literal human being.   For example 1 John 4:1 Beloved, do not believe every spirit, but test the spirits to see whether they are from God, for many false prophets have gone out into the world.

Here the word spirit can refer to a human.  So, truth be told I am glad the translators used Ghost, so there is no confusion.  Actually now that I think about it, when I watch a theological debate between a Christian vs Muslim, sometimes the Islam believer states Jesus was referring a person there last prophet as a the comforter.  And states that's why spirit terminology is used to reference it being a human being.  But this logic falls completely flat since they used the term HOLY GHOST, for it as well.  Scripture cannot be broken!

 

[enoob57]

well the issue with the two being synonymous terms is it in turn by Scripture states

John 4:24 (KJV)

[24] God is a Spirit: and they that worship him must worship him in spirit and in truth.

This would seem necessary that God The Holy Spirit should remain that title throughout  
Has anyone read where it was Ghost / Spirit same in old English?

[Guest]

26 minutes ago, NOONE7 said:

Here the word spirit can refer to a human.

My understanding is that it means to test the spirit that is speaking through the man.

[NOONE7]

12 minutes ago, Blueyedjewel said:

My understanding is that it means to test the spirit that is speaking through the man.

Good point!

[Anonymous Aristotle]

I checked Strong's. Pneuma , wind, spirit, would likely encompass ghost, being ghost is a spirit. I don't know how we'd find out about the original KJV translator's purpose in this translation method. That would be fascinating to find something documenting their process in translation. 

[coheir]

its seem to me to be same.

Luke 3:22

And the Holy Ghost descended in a bodily shape like a dove upon him, and a voice came from heaven, which said, Thou art my beloved Son; in thee I am well pleased.

Luke 23:46

And when Jesus had cried with a loud voice, he said, Father, into thy hands I commend my spirit: and having said thus, he gave up the ghost.

[frienduff thaylorde]

A few years back I went and studied old , middle , and modern English.

I did it to prove the translations of the bible , at least up to the kjb had been accurate.  THEY WERE.

However to answer your question , their was more than one writer on the kjb transaltions.

Some used ANON, some used straightway..........some immediately.  YET it means the same thing.

Holy ghost or Holy Spirit is the same .  Just some said Ghost , some said spirit .

By and by means immediately too.  Its just how the particular writer wrote. English had no universal spelling either.

 

[other one]

30 minutes ago, Traveler said:

Just to add. often spirit is used for within and ghost for without but there is no real consistency to that rule, depends on the translator.

Have you ever read a post on a thread and thought "Why didn't I see that"  

 

"Why didn't I see that"

 

[enoob57]

Well thank you all the search continues