sign of the end of the age

[Fraught]

Jesus finished up a lecture with "And this gospel of the kingdom will be preached in the whole world as a testimony to all nations, and then the end will come."

A question we should all know the answer to, and i don't. Has the gospel of the kingdom been preached to the whole world as a testimony?

[OneLight]

I don't think anyone can give an answer with 100% accuracy, but I can say that we now have the capability to talk to someone on the other side of the world in a second, which has sped the preaching in greater speed. We now can print the bible in just about every language known to man and get it to them in a manner of weeks. We can now send people to the outer most parts of the world with great ease. Have we done so? That, my friend, I can not answer.

[other one]

Jesus finished up that same lecture in Luke with: Luke 21:24

And Jerusalem will be trampled by Gentiles until the times of the Gentiles are fulfilled.

NKJV

Is Jerusalem still being trampled by the Gentiles.

[Rick-Parker]

Obviously not. There is a specific number of Gentiles who must be saved (the times of the Gentiles are fulfilled) and until that unknown number is met, Christ will not return.

[Hunterpoet]

Obviously not. There is a specific number of Gentiles who must be saved (the times of the Gentiles are fulfilled) and until that unknown number is met, Christ will not return.

How do you know a specific number of gentiles must be saved??? This confuses me. Mt. 18:14 Even so it is not the will of your Father which is in heaven, that one of these little ones should perish.

If there were a specific number to be saved, why would our Lord say this?? To my thinking, and having read the commentaries concerning this verse, I'm led to believe we are given full reign to bring as many to Christ as we are able.

I'm also not familiar with any verse which implies a certain number must be saved before He returns. Is there a scripture verse which states this??

I know that as humans we have no power to cause someone to accept God, only the Spirit can do that, but we certainly have the capability to introduce people to our Lord.

The Lord says that this Gospel will be preached in all the world as a testimony, but He doesn't say how long it will be preached.

Which I think is in line with the teaching that only the Father knows when the Son will return.

[Rick-Parker]

Most of the explanation of the fullness of the Gentiles being fulfilled was given by Paul in Romans. In Romans 11:25-27, Paul says (to the Gentiles) "I do not want you to be ignorant of this mystery, brothers, so that you may not be conceited: Israel has experienced a hardening in part until the full number of the Gentiles has come in.

26: And so all Israel will be saved, as it is written: 'The deliverer will come from Zion; he will turn godlessness away from Jacob.

27: And this is my covenant with them when I take away their sins.'" (NIV)

Universal repentance will come upon Israel after the "fullness of the Gentiles has come in." In other words, Paul interprets the prophetic outline like this: God has turned from the Jews as a people and is not working primarily among the Jews to sanctify them. Indeed, He is working primarily among the Gentiles. But the day will come when the full complement (number) of those Gentiles whom God is going to save will have come to faith. There is a point when the body of Christ (the bride) has reached it's fullness. We know this because God shuts the door to the marriage and no more are added to the bride after the marriage. This is dealt with in Matthew 25, the kingdom parable of the 10 virgins. Only then will God turn to Israel and pour out His Spirit upon them as the prophets have promised. If the full complement of Gentiles whom God intends to save has been reached, does that not imply that no more Gentiles will be saved?

[Fez]

There is a point when the body of Christ (the bride) has reached it's fullness. Looking at some "churches" and denominations that are described in the media, here at Worthy, and from what I have seen, we have a long way to go yet!

[Guest yod]

Most of the explanation of the fullness of the Gentiles being fulfilled was given by Paul in Romans. In Romans 11:25-27, Paul says (to the Gentiles) "I do not want you to be ignorant of this mystery, brothers, so that you may not be conceited: Israel has experienced a hardening in part until the full number of the Gentiles has come in.

In my opinion, "the full number of gentiles" is not the same as "the times of the gentiles"

It is also my opinion that the "Times of the Gentiles" ended in 1967

We have been in the Times of the One New Man since

[Hunterpoet]

Most of the explanation of the fullness of the Gentiles being fulfilled was given by Paul in Romans. In Romans 11:25-27, Paul says (to the Gentiles) "I do not want you to be ignorant of this mystery, brothers, so that you may not be conceited: Israel has experienced a hardening in part until the full number of the Gentiles has come in.

26: And so all Israel will be saved, as it is written: 'The deliverer will come from Zion; he will turn godlessness away from Jacob.

27: And this is my covenant with them when I take away their sins.'" (NIV)

Universal repentance will come upon Israel after the "fullness of the Gentiles has come in." In other words, Paul interprets the prophetic outline like this: God has turned from the Jews as a people and is not working primarily among the Jews to sanctify them. Indeed, He is working primarily among the Gentiles. But the day will come when the full complement (number) of those Gentiles whom God is going to save will have come to faith. There is a point when the body of Christ (the bride) has reached it's fullness. We know this because God shuts the door to the marriage and no more are added to the bride after the marriage. This is dealt with in Matthew 25, the kingdom parable of the 10 virgins. Only then will God turn to Israel and pour out His Spirit upon them as the prophets have promised. If the full complement of Gentiles whom God intends to save has been reached, does that not imply that no more Gentiles will be saved?

Thank you for your explanation. I have read 12 commentaries( Clark, Poole, Barns etc), none indicate that it means a specific number of people, but that vast numbers and countries will belong to the Lord, more specifically they infer more to a specific period of time, and at the end of that time, the Spirit will move among the Jews and they will accept the Christ as Messiah.

I guess I'm just hung up on a specific number of people(Gentiles) having to be converted.

I will discuss this more with the Pastor of my Church.

Thank you again for your explanation.

[Rick-Parker]

Most of the explanation of the fullness of the Gentiles being fulfilled was given by Paul in Romans. In Romans 11:25-27, Paul says (to the Gentiles) "I do not want you to be ignorant of this mystery, brothers, so that you may not be conceited: Israel has experienced a hardening in part until the full number of the Gentiles has come in.

In my opinion, "the full number of gentiles" is not the same as "the times of the gentiles"

It is also my opinion that the "Times of the Gentiles" ended in 1967

We have been in the Times of the One New Man since

You're right, I misspoke. I meant the full number of in my original statement, not the time of.