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Posted

"The "Day of the Lord" and the 70th week of Daniel are NOT two titles for the same thing. They are different. For example, one ill last only for 2520 days. The Day of the Lord starts before the 70th week and continues on after the 70th week ends."

 

This is true ..... the day of the Lord begins here [Revelation 6:17] and continues on into eternity


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Posted
3 hours ago, Diaste said:

Except for mankind makes up the critical component, timing. Nothing in this verse says anything about timing. But further on it does, and scripture says this gathering occurs AFTER the revealing of the beast. 

Sorry, but it is a departing that must come first: "apostasia." That is the restraining force being "taken out of the way." THEN (and only then) will be the man of sin be revealed.


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Posted
14 hours ago, Quasar93 said:

 

Yes, the man of lawlessness is revealed in verse 3, AFTER the [apostasia/discessio] departure of the Church.  Confirmed in verses 7-8, where the Church is taken out of the way, in verse 7, and in verse 8 the man of lawlessness is again revealed.

 

Quasar93

Brilliant! Most people miss this point that in 3b the man of sin IS REVEALED showing us that in 3a MUST BE the entity restraining the man of sin and holding him back being "taken out of the way."

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Posted
4 hours ago, iamlamad said:

Sorry, but it is a departing that must come first: "apostasia." That is the restraining force being "taken out of the way." THEN (and only then) will be the man of sin be revealed.

Apostasia has always been defined as a revolt or defection, check the etymology. The wolves have convinced you that the definition of aphistemi is the one to use for apostasia instead of the real definition. Even then, looking at the definition of aphistemi we see it's a departure implying desertion, again, check the etymology. Neither aphistemi nor apostasia is a departure from one place to another. The following are the words for departure meaning to leave or depart:

analusis -- a loosing ...

exodos -- a departure

aphixis -- arrival

analuó -- to unloose 

ephistémi -- to set ...

plané -- a wandering

exerchomai -- to go

apo -- from, away from

These do not appear in 2 Thess 2. You must think the writers of the NT were incompetent to make such an error.

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Posted
5 hours ago, Daniel 11:36 said:

"The "Day of the Lord" and the 70th week of Daniel are NOT two titles for the same thing. They are different. For example, one ill last only for 2520 days. The Day of the Lord starts before the 70th week and continues on after the 70th week ends."

 

This is true ..... the day of the Lord begins here [Revelation 6:17] and continues on into eternity

True, it begins with the 6th seal, well into the last week ,as evidenced by the fact the first 5 seals have already opened. Or are you saying the seals are opened out of order? You must be.


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Posted (edited)
19 hours ago, Quasar93 said:

 

Yes, the man of lawlessness is revealed in verse 3, AFTER the [apostasia/discessio] departure of the Church.  Confirmed in verses 7-8, where the Church is taken out of the way, in verse 7, and in verse 8 the man of lawlessness is again revealed.

 

Quasar93

Would be so kind as to post the definition and etymology for "discessio". All I find is, 'arise', 'vote', 'management', 'direction'. And no etymology. Care to help?

Never mind, found it here.

 

Definition of decession

archaic

Origin and Etymology of decession

 

Latin decession-, decessio, from decessus (past participle of decedere to depart, from de from, away + cedere to go) + -ion-, -io -ion
Even discessio is a departure AWAY FROM. A withdrawal. A decrease, not a gain. Failed to do the leg work again did ya?
 
Edited by Diaste

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Posted

"True, it begins with the 6th seal, well into the last week ,as evidenced by the fact the first 5 seals have already opened. Or are you saying the seals are opened out of order? You must be."

 

The seals have nothing to do with prophetic occurrence, but to simply indicate what is to come during the tribulation period

The events of the tribulation period begin in chapter 8 and end in chapter 19


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Posted
22 hours ago, Diaste said:

Apostasia has always been defined as a revolt or defection, check the etymology. The wolves have convinced you that the definition of aphistemi is the one to use for apostasia instead of the real definition. Even then, looking at the definition of aphistemi we see it's a departure implying desertion, again, check the etymology. Neither aphistemi nor apostasia is a departure from one place to another. The following are the words for departure meaning to leave or depart:

analusis -- a loosing ...

exodos -- a departure

aphixis -- arrival

analuó -- to unloose 

ephistémi -- to set ...

plané -- a wandering

exerchomai -- to go

apo -- from, away from

These do not appear in 2 Thess 2. You must think the writers of the NT were incompetent to make such an error.

It appears you attempted to do some homework. I guess you missed Strongs:

For "apo" the first part of the compound word, Apostasia

Of Separation
of the separation of apart from the whole; where of a whole some part is taken:

Consider the rapture of the church: is not a part of the whole (population) removed from the whole population?

For the 'stasia part, that means a standing, or something stationary.

In fact, the rapture will be SO SUDDEN those left behind, even if they were walking, will be left standing, or be stationary - not moving - while the righteous are taken.

 

Again, perhaps you have not read the first translations from Greek to English: they used the word "departing."  These are people so well verse in Greek and Hebrew that they make translations of the entire bible. I trust them.

Tyndale: 1525:  Let no ma deceave you by eny meanes for the lorde commeth not excepte ther come a departynge fyrst and that that synfnll man be opened ye sonne of perdicion

Would you say that he was incompetant?

Coverdale: 1535  Let noman disceaue you by eny meanes. For the LORDE commeth not, excepte the departynge come first, and that that Man of synne be opened, euen the sonne of perdicion,

Would you say he was incompetant?

Next, do you believe what Paul wrote? In particular, do you believe verses 6, 7 and 8?


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Posted
18 hours ago, Daniel 11:36 said:

"True, it begins with the 6th seal, well into the last week ,as evidenced by the fact the first 5 seals have already opened. Or are you saying the seals are opened out of order? You must be."

 

The seals have nothing to do with prophetic occurrence, but to simply indicate what is to come during the tribulation period

The events of the tribulation period begin in chapter 8 and end in chapter 19

How can you say that when one of the 4 beasts say, "come and see" And John SEES something? OF COURSE there is "occurance." The first seal is to represent the going forth of the gospel to the world. That "occurred." Philip began it by going to Samaria.

How do you get "during the tribulation period" out of say the first four seals? Do you read something I cannot find? I see in chapter 5 the CONTEXT of the first seals, which is Jesus ascended into heaven. Sorry, my friend, but that was in 32 AD. That is when He got the book into His hands and began breaking seals.

OF COURSE the seals are opened in order! That is why John numbered them, for sequencing.  I agree, the 70th week begins at the 7th seal and with the first trumpet.


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Posted
22 hours ago, Diaste said:

True, it begins with the 6th seal, well into the last week ,as evidenced by the fact the first 5 seals have already opened. Or are you saying the seals are opened out of order? You must be.

You can be sure, the seals were and will be opened in order. We are waiting on the 6th seal to be opened.  The first five have already been opened. There are martyrs still be added to the number.

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