Is that His real name Jesus?

[Ancient]

When translating from one language to another one of the many rules are that you use the closest sound for the letter you are translating to from the letter you are translating from. This is for proper nouns especially the names of people (names) places (cities, rivers, mountains). 

For example Moses in Hebrew is Mosheh, translated to Greek is Moseus and then English Moses. You can see the similarities of sound through out the translation process. the us on the end of the Greek Moseus is making it masculine.

Why is not the same process used for the name Jesus. Let me explain.

In Hebrew the name of the one most call Jesus is Yeshua which literally means salvation or deliverance. Translated into Greek it is Ieseus. Greek does not have the y sound so the closest sound is the I sound. Again like above with Moseus the Greek adds the us on the end to make is masculine. So we have Ieseus in Greek. Now the problem. We have all the sounds of Yeshua in our English language. So why not translate is as Yeshua?

Now let me add this to my point the letter J was introduced into the English language in around the mid 1600's and not in common use for say another 50 - 100 yrs. So at best the name Jesus is only around 300 yrs old not very long in the scheme of things. To also validate my point in the 1611 version of the KJV there is no Jesus why because there was no letter J in the English language. In the 1611 KJV it is Iesus very close translation to the Greek Ieseus. 

The question is why, why have translations chosen not to accurately translate His Hebrew name Yeshua which means salvation and deliverance. You may say well what's the big deal. It is a very very big deal. I can definitely tell you that there are many other occurrences like this in English translations. I will give you another gross deliberate changing of the text. You better sit down.

The Book of James in the NT is not James! It is Jacob or in Hebrew Yakov. So again why completely and deliberately change the name of a book of the NT? There are some theories which include that King James wanted his name in the bible. Another one is the Yakov or Jacob is Jewish and we can't have that now can we. Maybe the same reason why they have chosen not to translate His Hebrew name Yeshua accurately. 

Friends stuff like this has sadly happened more than most would know, it is deceitful, lying and leads people to read the text in a certain light. The knowledge of this has changed my life and the way I study the Bible, armed with this knowledge my relationship with God who I refer to as Yahweh again the text says LORD a total misrepresentation of the Hebrew language. When the bible is studied from this perspective it totally transforms the word of God and the whole book starts to make sense and all the puzzle pieces fit nicely together. All the perceived contradictions just fade away and you see the the Original text is truly the infallible word of God not the translation of the original text. 

Shalom Friends I really hope that this gets you all thinking.

 

Edited August 8, 2021 by Alive
promotng member website

[Desopixi Seilynam]

Yahweh and Yahshua, not Yeh, Yah.   

Supposed grammar rules are what changes the 'a' to an 'e',
but in original untouched Hebrew Numbers 13:16 is Yahoshua.  

The reason for the changes is because the sound Yahshua has power in and of itself.

And, the society of Jesus, the Jesuits, have been successful in keeping the true sound from being widely spoken.

[Alive]

The Lord has sovereignly preserved the scriptures for us--His Body and His Church. Why? Because He loves us and desires that we know of Him and to come to know Him.

The Lord is very much invested in this---for His own will and Plan.

We know our God because we come to understand 'WHO' He is and something of His Nature--and those things inform us of our relationship to and for Him. We have the indwelling Holy Spirit who leads us and walks along side us as He sheds Light into us.

There is no lack in scripture as He has delivered it to us...we have precisely what He wishes us to have.

He loves us....I suggest we think about that. Does not a Father love His children and hold back no good thing?

Edited August 8, 2021 by Alive
typo stuttering

[missmuffet]

Why would the Bible lie to us? If the Bible says His name is Jesus then it is Jesus. 

[Alive]

6 minutes ago, missmuffet said:

Why would the Bible lie to us? If the Bible says His name is Jesus then it is Jesus. 

The childlike simplicity of this statement is a thing of beauty---thank you dear sister.

God Bless you

[missmuffet]

5 minutes ago, Alive said:

The childlike simplicity of this statement is a thing of beauty---thank you dear sister.

God Bless you

You are welcome and God Bless you as well. 

[The_Patriot21]

So...question, does a translation calling Him Jesus over Yahway, or whatever greek word you want to use, change the message of the text?

Does calling "Jacob" "james" change the content/message of the book?

[appy]

Scriptures which speak of not judging another regarding sabbath keeping, can be applied to this issue as well. Because, the Lord knows who are His and whether we are pleasing Him or not. Whether we use one spelling or pronunciation over another is something each person must decide.

Whether we esteem certain foods over another, esteem certain days over another or esteem certain spellings over another. Scripture says God has accepted us all in the same way. And that is through the work of Christ on the cross. Whether I use Jesus or a use the Hebrew or Greek pronunciation, you still know who I am speaking of.

God is fully able to let each of us know whether we are doing wrong, or we are pleasing him. We are NOT called to be language cops or morality cops, but to share the gospel message with the lost.

[Deborah_]

The names didn't come directly into English from either Hebrew or Greek, but via Latin. Apparently that accounts for a lot of the changes.

[Ancient]

9 hours ago, Alive said:

The Lord has sovereignly preserved the scriptures for us--His Body and His Church. Why? Because He loves us and desires that we know of Him and to come to know Him.

The Lord is very much invested in this---for His own will and Plan.

We know our God because we come to understand 'WHO' He is and something of His Nature--and those things inform us of our relationship to and for Him. We have the indwelling Holy Spirit who leads us and walks along side us as He sheds Light into us.

There is no lack in scripture as He has delivered it to us...we have precisely what He wishes us to have.

He loves us....I suggest we think about that. Does not a Father love His children and hold back no good thing?

God says He is restoring all things and I am a believer that part of that is the Original language that He revealed and gave His instructions in. Another example is the unearthing of the Dead Sea Scrolls. This turned the Biblical world upside down especially as far as language is concerned. Don't be surprised as we continue on that more and more will be revealed. As it seems everytime they put a shovel in the land of Israel things are being uncovered and shaking the traditions to the core.  

Yes the Father loves His children and hold back no good thing, maybe part of that is causing one to open their eyes and learn a different perspective so they can understand Him more.

Shalom Friend