What is your View of the 1,000 year Kingdom?

[Vine Abider]

1 hour ago, TrueFollowerOfChrist said:

I;m someone who takes scripture literally, and I do the same with Revelation. Since chapter 20 actually says there will be a 1,000 year reign, I accept that Jesus WILL reign for 1,000 years from Jerusalem. There are MANY millennial passages in the bible, so I'm not sure how anyone could possibly argue with it. Those mention lots of peace and prosperity, and are absent any mention of evil people or acts. Therefore I think its pretty easy to deduce that there will be NO crime or violence against people and that even evil thoughts ( for example an unbeliever "thinking" about hurting someone will be dealt with instantly by Jesus, either by death or something else that renders them powerless. 

As stated in the OP, that had been my perception too.  However, consider what our brother says (below).

45 minutes ago, AdHoc said:

It really boils down to the question;

Do the Nations who survive the Great Tribulation get a new nature or not?

If "Yes", then we must be able to show when they received it and what nature it is. Within this answer you'll have to explain why it suddenly reverses itself for Magog's rebellion.

If "No", then the carnal mind is at enmity with God. Romans 7 continues to be valid so that even under threat of death the Nations will be unable to keep any Laws.

The rod of iron will have a major effect though. I lived in a Middle Eastern monarchy for six years and the draconian sentences were a great deterrent. You could mostly leave your house and car unlocked and women were safe to be out alone. But this was no guarantee, and every now and again there was a heinous crime committed. Man is hopelessly fallen.

Romans 5:12-17 is still valid and Adam's nature will still be passed from man for those not in resurrection. Israel gets three effective helps to keep the Law. 1. It is written inside of them, not on stone tables. 2. The receive a new heart. 3. They receive a new spirit (Jer.31:31-33, Ezek.11:19, 36:26). Those of the Nations don't have this advantage.

 

[Vine Abider]

5 minutes ago, Michael37 said:

Either or. Interchangeable, like Kingdom of Heaven and Kingdom of God. 

Okay, thanks. So what I am referring to in this thread is specifically the 1,000 year kingdom reign on earth after His 2nd coming.  (and changed the title to reflect that period)

[Marilyn C]

21 minutes ago, Vine Abider said:

Thanks Marilyn.  You made a statement right at the beginning about God never giving anything away, which I wonder how that lines-up with this verse: "The highest heavens belong to the LORD, but the earth he has given to mankind."  Psalm 115:16

And in John 17:22 we see: "The glory that you have given me I have given to them." 

The Psalms also ask (in two places), "What is man that You are mindful of him?"  (8:4 & 144:3; also quoted in Hebrews 2:6) Hebrews)

Indeed, what is man that God gives us these things!?

Yes, mankind will inherit the earth. We read of the nations on the earth in the new heavens and new earth. (Rev. 21: 24) So, God`s purpose for mankind is still the same only the authority dealt with.

Now, we also know from God`s word that he has called out a specific people from Israel and from the nations. These people are no longer earth bound but born from above of incorruptible seed - Christ. (1 Peter 1: 23)

This great purpose in Christ was kept secret till the Lord revealed it to the apostle Paul and told us that the Father made the Son Head of this group - the Body of Christ. (Eph. 1: 22,  3: 5)

And they are destined for the `on top calling,` to Christ`s very own throne in the highest. (Phil. 3: 14,  Rev. 3: 21)

[Vine Abider]

8 minutes ago, Marilyn C said:

Yes, mankind will inherit the earth. We read of the nations on the earth in the new heavens and new earth. (Rev. 21: 24) So, God`s purpose for mankind is still the same only the authority dealt with.

Now, we also know from God`s word that he has called out a specific people from Israel and from the nations. These people are no longer earth bound but born from above of incorruptible seed - Christ. (1 Peter 1: 23)

This great purpose in Christ was kept secret till the Lord revealed it to the apostle Paul and told us that the Father made the Son Head of this group - the Body of Christ. (Eph. 1: 22,  3: 5)

And they are destined for the `on top calling,` to Christ`s very own throne in the highest. (Phil. 3: 14,  Rev. 3: 21)

I'm no Hebrew scholar - does the "the earth He has given to mankind" from Psalm 115:16 mean in the past, or is it stating in the future?

[Marilyn C]

7 minutes ago, Vine Abider said:

I'm no Hebrew scholar - does the "the earth He has given to mankind" from Psalm 115:16 mean in the past, or is it stating in the future?

I would say God gave it to man when He created man and forever, on into the new earth. It is ONE of the purposes of God in Christ. 

[Who me]

17 hours ago, Vine Abider said:

Therefore I see the kingdom as a literal, thousand year reign on earth that will be implemented shortly after Christ's return

Yet revelation is a book of word pictures, much that is in it isnot literal and the 1k is one of them, it is a figurative or symbolic period of time.

[AdHoc]

9 hours ago, Marilyn C said:

I would say God gave it to man when He created man and forever, on into the new earth. It is ONE of the purposes of God in Christ. 

On certain things we disagree. But here we agree. God was specific in Genesis 1:26-28. "LET him have dominion over te earth, sea and sky and all that is in them". The councils of God are immutable. And if Adam failed God will raise up a Second Adam Who will succeed. Man is made from the earth, nourished by the earth for dominion of the earth.

So what is this matter of heaven?

Heaven is God's throne. All rule proceeds from heaven. But God does not make central Government. He makes the kings take on a heavenly nature. He infuses his kings with the rules of heaven and they BRING IT TO ITS INTENDED DESTINATION. It is the "Kingdom (out) OF Heaven", not "The Kingdom IN Heaven". Our Lord Jesus shows this so clearly in John Chapter 1.

The ladder is set ON EARTH. The angels speak of men with resurrection life (Lk.20:35-36). That they are men is shown in that they FIRST GO UP (from the earth). Real angels would DESCEND. These men become heavenly. They experience the BIRTH THAT IS FROM ABOVE. Their glory is "CELESTIAL". They are partakers of the DIVINE NATURE (2nd Pet.1:4). They are a NEW CREATURE. Old things have passed away. They are no more connected to Adam. Once fully saturated with the things of heaven, they return to Earth. Enoch and the Paul see the Lord returning to earth WITH all His saints (1st Thess.3:13, 4:14, Jude 14).

After this, the Overcoming saints will sit on thrones judging and ruling (Rev.20:1-6)

[AdHoc]

11 minutes ago, Who me said:

Yet revelation is a book of word pictures, much that is in it isnot literal and the 1k is one of them, it is a figurative or symbolic period of time.

It is true that Revelation has signs and pictures to illustrate events. It is so in the very first verse. But let us examine how they are used.

1 The Revelation of Jesus Christ, which God gave unto him, to shew unto his servants things which must shortly come to pass; and he sent and signified it by his angel unto his servant John:

"The Revelation". The Greek word means "The unveiling" or the "Revealing". This will be a literal event (Matt.24:31)
"He gave him - his servants". This is John and all other disciples of Jesus - literal people
"His servant John" - a real literal person
"His angel" - a real literal angel
"SIGNIFIED" - here we come to the "sign" - the explanation by ILLUSTRATION

What ever the "sign" was, history shows that the fulfillment was literal and real and accurate. Thus, most of Revelation is LITERAL, but it has illustrations. Another example is the city mentioned in Chapter 11. Everything points to it being Jerusalem, but to ILLUSTRATE its condition it is called Sodom and Egypt.

Now let us examine the thousand years of Revelation 20.
1. It is "A" thousand years three times
2. It is "THE" thousand years three more times for a total of six mentions in six verses
3. If it was a "sign" (or illustration), what would it illustrate?
4. It is a set time because Satan being let loose marks a serious event
5. It is a set time because it divides those resurrected at Christ's coming and "the rest of the dead" (Rev.20:5, 1st Cor.15:22-28)
6 It is a set time that Jesus must reign on the earth as we know it now
7. It is a set time because it is "the day of the Lord" and a lot happens in this day
8. It has a beginning and an end
9. It has no value if taken allegorically. What would it signify?
10. There is no reason to make it a sign. Consider this.

From Adam to Christ, taking genealogies  and times and dates from the Old Testament, is 4,000 years. From Christ's first coming to His second is likely to be 2,000 yeas. For God (not us) a day is the same as 1,000 years (2nd Pet.3:8). That is, if God is repeating the restoration of earth in six days, and He returned after 6,000 years, the next 1,000 years would be the Sabbath. But this is exactly what Hebrews 3 and 4 say. In these Chapters God defines the first Sabbath Rests and predicts a future Sabbath Rest. The "Rest" He uses for reference is Israel entering and occupying the Good Land.

1. Israel enter the Good Land around 1,500 BC and Judah is ejected from the Land around 600 BC. Whatever differences expositors have in dates, the fact remains that God did not get a Sabbath because His man - Israel. failed after ca. 900 years. But this not all.

2. The first six days are defined by "the evening and the morning" - 24 hours. But not the first Sabbath. The Holy Spirit purposefully did not define the length of the Sabbath with the same measurement. He used a different one - the length of Adam's life. Adam was made last on the sixth day. His first full day would have been the seventh. the warning to Adam was that "IN  that the day he ate of the Tree of Knowledge of Good and Evil, he would die. Now if we go to Romans Chapters 5 and 6 (5.12-17, 6:23) we see that the "death" for sin was physical death.* Thus, for Adam to die (a physical death) IN a "day", he would have had to have eaten, and sinned the same day he died. OR ... we have to define the day differently. But 2nd Peter 1:20 does not allow private interpretation of scripture. So we are constrained to define the "day" WITHIN which Adam died, by the days in the Bible.

There are 5 different days in the Bible, 1. a period of sunlight, 2. a 24 hour period, 3. an event like "the day of vengeance", 4 1 year for 1 day in prophecy, and 5. a day is a thousand years. Which one fits Adam? ONLY ONE. The "day" IN WHICH Adam died was 1,000 years - seeing as he lived 930 years. Thus, the first Sabbath was defined by Adam's Lifetime - 930 years. The first Sabbath, AND the one of Hebrews 3 and 4 was defined by a thousand years.

The first Sabbath, God's Rest in Hebrews 3 and 4, AND the time when Israel will be restored to their Land are ALL 1,000 years! LITERAL 1,000 years! If there is any "sign" to be found in it, I would say it is the 6 X mention of 1,000 years in SIX VERSES.

[AnOrangeCat]

19 hours ago, Vine Abider said:

However, while I believe what I said above is basically true, recently in another thread  @AdHoc presented a few verses that got me to realizing there may be more to the kingdom than what I'd thought.  He brought out that overcomers are to "rule the nations with a rod of iron" (Rev 2:27).  Why does it say this?  The answer goes something like this - the nations and people remaining will not be automatically won over to God's way of doing things.  Therefore, there will be the need for swift, loving and righteous judgment on sinful and rebellious acts and some of the retributions may need to be severe.  That is, the age of grace will be over then, and such things will not be tolerated, not even a little.

This is pretty much my perspective. Satan is bound during the thousand years but is later released. To me the scenario seems like one last chance for people to choose God. They get to see that He's good and just and cultivate a love for God without any outside interference or the spiritual wickedness in high places we've had for almost all of human history. In a way it almost strikes me as a large scale Eden 2.0. Satan only got to tempt Adam and Eve once in Eden, much like how he's out of the picture in the thousand years until the very end. Without Satan around what's left to lead people astray? The flesh. It's easy to understand why people would need help taming that.

[Vine Abider]

2 hours ago, Who me said:

Yet revelation is a book of word pictures, much that is in it isnot literal and the 1k is one of them, it is a figurative or symbolic period of time.

Yes, but I think there's a mix of symbolic and literal in Revelation.  In any case, I think we will all be amazed as to how the Lord actually unfolds it all! 

(And for a more detailed answer, I like what @AdHoc said above!)