What role did Jesus play concerning the law.

[greendrakkon]

Deleted this post to start my own topic.

Edited June 23, 2006 by greendrakkon

[buckthesystem]

Jesus says Mathew 5:17 "Do not think that I have come to abolish the Law or the Prophets; I have not come to abolish them but to fulfill them." and

But elsewhere it says:

Ephesians 2:14For he himself is our peace, who has made the two one and has destroyed the barrier, the dividing wall of hostility, 15by abolishing in his flesh the law with its commandments and regulations

and....Romans 10:4Christ is the end of the law so that there may be righteousness for everyone who believes.

Not understanding exactly what Jesus did to the law has brought up a number of questions for me as to what God wants from me (Sabbath, tithing, etc) So far I am discovering God's will in these issues one at a time, but I think if I understood exactly what Jesus did, then I could see a bigger picture, and I would understand more.

I read where Paul explains this, but as Peter say 1Peter 3:15 "Paul also wrote you with the wisdom that God gave him. 16He writes the same way in all his letters, speaking in them of these matters. His letters contain some things that are hard to understand"

Does anyone have insight? Use little words, please!

The way I see it (this is open to debate though I guess), the quote from Matthew 5.17 refers to the law of God as already laid down, and the basic rules for life (thou shalt not kill, steal etc.). It is logical that Jesus "came to fuflfill them" and practise them.

However, in Ephesians 2.14, it refers to the law of man, particularly as it was at the time. The clue is in the words, in 2.15, "by abolishing in his flesh the law with its commandments and regulations".

So Jesus was saying "you still have to live a life with morals, the way I have shown you" but do not take notice of the false regulations that man has put in place".

[RND]

Jesus says Mathew 5:17 "Do not think that I have come to abolish the Law or the Prophets; I have not come to abolish them but to fulfill them." and

But elsewhere it says:

Ephesians 2:14For he himself is our peace, who has made the two one and has destroyed the barrier, the dividing wall of hostility, 15by abolishing in his flesh the law with its commandments and regulations

and....Romans 10:4Christ is the end of the law so that there may be righteousness for everyone who believes.

Not understanding exactly what Jesus did to the law has brought up a number of questions for me as to what God wants from me (Sabbath, tithing, etc) So far I am discovering God's will in these issues one at a time, but I think if I understood exactly what Jesus did, then I could see a bigger picture, and I would understand more.

I read where Paul explains this, but as Peter say 1Peter 3:15 "Paul also wrote you with the wisdom that God gave him. 16He writes the same way in all his letters, speaking in them of these matters. His letters contain some things that are hard to understand"

Does anyone have insight? Use little words, please!

The way I see it (this is open to debate though I guess), the quote from Matthew 5.17 refers to the law of God as already laid down, and the basic rules for life (thou shalt not kill, steal etc.). It is logical that Jesus "came to fuflfill them" and practise them.

However, in Ephesians 2.14, it refers to the law of man, particularly as it was at the time. The clue is in the words, in 2.15, "by abolishing in his flesh the law with its commandments and regulations".

So Jesus was saying "you still have to live a life with morals, the way I have shown you" but do not take notice of the false regulations that man has put in place".

There are two distinct and different sets of laws.

First, there is the Ten Commandments. This is the law spoken by, and written with the finger of God himself. Twice! These two tablets of stone were placed inside the Ark of the Covenant.

Second, there is the written law of Moses, called the Mosaic Law. This law was spoken of by God to Moses. It was written in a Book. The Book was placed on the outside of the Ark as a witness against the children of Israel.

One was nailed to the cross. Can you guess which one? Hint: You can't nail stone to wood!

This is the one of the main reasons I became a Christian Sabbath keeper. There is nothing in Scripture that saids the Sabbath was done away with.

Below, is a Bible study given to me by a Pastor in North Carolina. Hope it helps and you find it a tremendous help. God Bless.

Study:

The moral law of the Ten Commandments and the book that Moses wrote as a witness against the Jews are distinguished from one another by their location in relation to the ark

[Naziyr]

Shalom...

This is sad... Antinomianism is not Righteousness. Antinomianism is when people think that Grace and Faith makes the Law non applicable and not to be practiced. These same Antinomians are what Peter the Apostle talks about when He says:

"And consider the patience of our L-rd [to be] salvation, just as also our beloved brother Paul, according to the wisdom having been given to him, wrote to you*, as also in all his letters, speaking in them concerning these [things], in which are some [things] difficult to be understood, which the untaught and unstable twist [fig., distort] to their own destruction, as [they do] also the rest of [the] Scriptures. _You*_ therefore, beloved, knowing [this] beforehand, be guarding yourselves, lest, together with the deception of the lawless [ones] being led away, you* fall from your* own firm footing [or, steadfastness].

2 Peter 3:15-17 Analytical-Literal Translation

Paul the Apostle and Peter were Torah Observant believers, so was James the Elder, and many others of the NT writers. You don't believe Paul was Observant of the Torah (or rendered "law of moses")? Read this:

"And on the next day, Paul went in with us to James. And all the elders came. And having greeted them, he related one by one what things G-d had worked among the nations through his ministry. And hearing, they glorified the L-rd, and said to him, You see, brother, how many myriads there are of Jews that have believed, and all are zealous ones of the Law. And they were informed about you, that you teach falling away from Moses, telling all the Jews throughout the nations not to circumcise their children, nor to walk in the customs. What then is it? At all events, a multitude must come together, for they will hear that you have come. Then do this, what we say to you: There are four men who have a vow on themselves; taking these, be purified with them, and be at expense on them, that they may shave the head. And all shall know that all what they have been told about you is nothing, but you yourself walk orderly, keeping the Law."

Acts 21:18-24 Literal Translation of the Holy Bible

The council and elders of the Early Church testified of Paul that he was a Torah Observant Jew and KEPT THE LAW. (most antinomians don't want to hear this, cause it puts scripture in a whole new context... which I'll discuss some next)

Going in semi order of post... but first, a small discussion on who we are in Christ.

Many Christians feel it is wrong to call themselves Jews, but to many's surprise, the faithful are fundamentally Jewish in spirit. Now don't get me wrong... those that believe and have faith aren't physical Jews, but are often at times mentioned as Paul as "one of the commonwealth of Israel" and "seperate from the Gentiles". How can a non-jewish Christian Not be a gentile? Physically the flesh bears whitness that a Gentile who has faith is a Gentile in the flesh, but the spirit is that of the Chosen people of G-d. The Jews.

Now the mentality already among some reading this, is that we aren't Jews cause we don't practice Judaism, or aren't really going by Jewish custom... but Understand what I say when I say "spiritually" Jews. There's much to this and I'd be happy to more fully discuss it if someone starts a thread about it, but I'll stop messing around and get to scripture.

Because of this, remember that you, the nations, were then in the flesh (those having been called Uncircumcision by those having been called Circumcision in the flesh made by hands) that at that time you were without Christ, alienated from the commonwealth of Israel and strangers of the covenants of promise, having no hope and without God in the world. But now, in Christ Jesus you who then were afar off, came to be near by the blood of Christ.

Ephesians 2:11-13

Came to be near to what? Re-read for clarity. Hint* Commonwealth of Israel *cough* Hebrews *cough* OKAY NOW moving on (this time really... lol)

:cardcaptor:

Ephesians 2:14, 15 means that making both one that now both the Jews and Gentiles have access to G-d's grace. The partition was that only the Jews were G-d's chosen people and they were not allowed to associate with the Gentiles. He abolished the the 10 commandment law.

See this is partially Antinomianism because cardcaptor believes Faith nullifies the Law... which it doesn't.

"Then is the Law annulled through faith? Let it not be! But we establish Law."

Romans 3:31

:cardcaptor:

Romans 10:4 Christ is the end of the Old Law, we are now under the law of faith (Romans 3:24).

Once again antinomian doctrine dictates that "Christ is the end of the Law". Taking this verse in it's context to mean "The death of the Law", but this is not true. Christ himself said he did not come to "abolish the Law" which means to destroy, so then what does "the end of the Law" mean? It means the FINAL RESULT, FINAL OUTCOME, FINAL CONCLUSION. Not the destruction, for such a thing is not biblical. People that see through these eyes often misinterpret alot of passages about "The death" and "end" of the Law... which btw the Law is ETERNAL. These people HATE the Law within themselves and seek to further alienate their brothers and sisters from it. Here's just a few things the scriptures say about the Law of G-d:

The Law is...

-The delight of the rigteous man. Psa 1:2

-Perfect Psa 19:7

-a blessing:-"ALEPH: Blessed are the upright in the way, who walk in the Law of the L-rd." Psalms 119:1

-Eternal Psa 119:44

-Truth Psa 119:142

If it is all these things, How can you see it as contrary? Jesus taught Peter personally, yet Peter while with Jesus and then after, still followed the Law. James the Elder commanded the "gentile" churches to obey COMMANDMENTS from the LAW. James even told Paul the Apostle to demonstrate that HE HIMSELF obeyed the Law. So with all this, how can we continue to place Paul's words in the context of a "Hater of the Law"? We must view these things more clearly my friends.

"For Christ is the end of Law for righteousness to everyone that believes. For Moses writes of the righteousness which is of the Law: "The man doing these things shall live by them." Lev. 18:5"

Romans 10:4-5

We see here that Christ is the end of the Law for righteousness to everyone that believes. So he is the End Result of the Righteousness of the Law for everyone that believes.

We don't live in these anymore because Christ took these away as prophesied and that G-d will make a new covenant. (Jeremiah 31:31-34) Christ brought that coventant, that is why he was called the "Word". (John 1:1-5) All that you find that christ and his Apostles taught are what we are commanded to follow.

You kinda shoot yourself in the foot here =P. First you say Christ took away the commandments (which he didn't, he fufilled much of the Law, but it wasn't destroyed).... and then you say that all that Christ and His Apostles taught are what we are commanded to follow. Well Christ's apostles and the early Church taught Commandments. If you don't believe me, read the list of foods the gentiles were to abstain from (acts 15), and go find those in the Food Laws found in Leviticus. Jesus was asked by the passerby rich fellow "What must I do to inherit eternal life?" What was Jesus' reply? He FIRST named off the 10 commandments, and then gave him the fufillment of the Law of faith. "Come follow me". So what does this mean???

1 John 3:23-24 And this is his commandment, That we should believe on the name of his Son Jesus Christ, and love one another, as he gave us commandment. And he that keepeth his commandments dwelleth in him, and he in him. And hereby we know that he abideth in us, by the Spirit which he hath given us.

Under the New Testement we find mercy and grace for our sins. We are no longer taken out and stoned for committing adultry, etc.

Who is Jesus if not G-d? What were G-d's commandments? What are Jesus' commandments? Are they not G-d's?

We are also told not to keep parts of the Old Law or we are held liable for the whole thing.

So we should be Lawless? Scripture defines the "disobedient" and the "evil" as lawless. So why be lawless?

Galatians 5:1-5 Stand fast therefore in the liberty wherewith Christ hath made us free, and be not entangled again with the yoke of bondage. Behold, I Paul say unto you, that if ye be circumcised, Christ shall profit you nothing. For I testify again to every man that is circumcised, that he is a debtor to do the whole law. Christ is become of no effect unto you, whosoever of you are justified by the law; ye are fallen from grace. For we through the Spirit wait for the hope of righteousness by faith.

So, if I try to keep any of the Old Law, unless it is mentioned again in the New Testement, I am a debtor to keep the whole thing.

This passage is waaaaay over misused. Now we must look at context. Galatians had a majority of "Gentile" believers who were not circumcized. (this is found in other passages) Paul's idea of circumcision is different than ours. It is often misread because proper context is not used. Let me demonstrate.

"Was anyone called having been circumcised? Do not be uncircumcised. Was anyone called in uncircumcision? Do not be circumcised."

1 Corinthians 7:18

What does this look like to you right off the bat? That Paul's speaking to all men right? Wrong. Jewish custom enforces the commandment that all Jewish males be circumcised 8 days after they are born. If uncircumcision was such a problem in the Corinthian Church, it can be observed from the context that this message was BOTH to PHYSICAL JEWS and PHYSICAL GENTILES. "Was anyone called having been circumcised?" (Called meaning having Faith while already being circumcised, which means A JEW") "Was anyone called in uncircumcision?" (Meaning Having Faith while already being Uncircumcised, meaning A GENTILE) "Do not be circumcised". Circumcision was a physical commandment for the Physical Jews as a Physical sign of the spiritual covenant. Paul was emphasising that Non-Jews should not have to be circumsized yet to physical Jews "Do not be uncircumcised" meaning "Do not break the commandment tradition."

In that badly misinterpreted passage up there, it is said "that he is a debtor to do the whole law" (those that are circumcized). What does this mean? Circumcision as we talked about before was a physical sign of the covenant with the Jews. Our communal Circumcision is now OF THE HEART.

"For he is not a Jew that is one outwardly, nor is circumcision that outwardly in flesh; but he is a Jew that is one inwardly, and circumcision is of heart, in spirit, not in letter; of whom the praise is not from men, but from G-d."

Romans 2:28-29

"in whom also you were circumcised with a circumcision not made by hands, but in the putting off of the body of the sins of the flesh, by the circumcision of Christ,"

Colossians 2:11

Again paul emphasizes "Your circumcision is useless if you aren't obedient"

To be a "debtor" of the Law in this case, is to submit oneself to Jewish Physical association in which there are many more commandments to be aware of.

Moving on...

Just keep this in mind, we are not under the Old Testement laws anymore. We are under the law and commandments that Christ brought us. In Matthew chapters 5-7 you can see where Christ is actually changing the law.

False. The scriptures declare that a "prophet" who tries to add or subtract to the Torah is a false prophet. I have seen this posted somewhere else and it makes me curious as to where you got this idea... but in Matt 5-7 Jesus isn't changing the Law, for to do so is to destroy it, but rather fufilling it, meaning "Showing people how to properly obey the Law" If Jesus, as G-d on earth were to go back on his law, then he would be changing his mind... which he doesn't do.

"G-d is not man, that he should lie, or a son of man, that he should change his mind. Has he said, and will he not do it? Or has he spoken, and will he not fulfill it?"

Numbers 23:19

You post a few scriptures that appear to you to be changes in the law, but I'll go over one and show you where it is in error.

Matthew 5:31-32 It hath been said, Whosoever shall put away his wife, let him give her a writing of divorcement: But I say unto you, That whosoever shall put away his wife, saving for the cause of fornication, causeth her to commit adultery: and whosoever shall marry her that is divorced committeth adultery.

At this time, the men of the community were allowed by ORAL LAW to divorce a woman on any grounds he sees fit. But Jesus declared that the true way to apply this law, is if she is unfaithful by means of adultery. Paul later writes that division in the house according to religous differences is another basis to divorce if peace cannot come between the couple. Jesus wasn't saying "whoops I changed my mind, you can't divorce anymore" If you look, he is STILL including the commandment because he NEVER abolishes it. This is contextual clues based on "That whosoever shall put away his wife, saving for the cause of fornication" meaning "Whoever divorces his wife for anything other than marital unfaithfulness..." etc. etc.

Anything you read from Matthew 1:1 to Revelations is what we are to follow. The Old Testement was given to us to help us to learn from.

Everything from Matt to Rev is BASED ON the commandments. Is homosexuality allowed? Paul rails against it in Corinthians, Romans, etc. etc. And why? Cause he's a Torah Observant believer who still believes the "Old Law" is what makes or breaks a true Christian.

:yod:

I don't want to sway you yet it is interesting that no where in the New Testament is a gentile told to keep the Torah.

Just an example...

"To hold back from (1)idol sacrifices, (2)and blood, and that strangled, (3)and from fornication" Acts 15:29

(1)"You shall not make idols to yourselves; and you shall not set up for yourselves graven images, or a memorial pillar. And you shall not place any stone image in your land, to bow yourselves to it; for I am the L-rd your G-d."

Leviticus 26:1

(2)"And you shall not eat any blood in all your dwellings, of fowl, or of animal.

Leviticus 7:26

(3)"then they shall bring out the girl to the door of her father's house. And the men of her city shall stone her with stones, and she shall die; for she has done folly in Israel, to commit fornication in her father's house. And you shall put away the evil from among you."

Deuteronomy 22:21

These btw, are found in the Torah. James commands the Gentiles to obey Torah Mitzvot.

When I miss it...there is no condemnation (Romans 8:1)

...missinterpreted =P

I suppose that was the wrong verse for me to quote. My confustion is, are Jew and Gentile worshippers of Jesus supposed to observe the same things? Do the same things? We are free from the law, but out of a heart to please G-d we follow the law, right? Which laws, exactly? How do we know from the Bible?"

Interesting you should ask... G-d commands the Physical Jews to observe certain holidays FOREVER (without end).

Example: Passover.

"And this day shall be a memorial to you. And you shall keep it as a feast to the L-rd throughout your generations. You shall keep it as a feast by a law forever."

Exodus 12:14

He didn't say "Until the Moshiac arrives" or "For a time" but "forrrreeeevvveeeeerrrr" so what makes us think we can get out of observing the passover as Spiritual Jews?

During Jesus' time, if a rabbi was thought to be misinterpreting a passage from the Torah, or 'the Law', he would be charged with 'destroying the Law'. In other words, causing it to be misunderstood (cf. v. 19). Conversely, correct interpretation was considered 'fulfilling the Law'. He is therefore expaining that he has not come for the purpose of propagating any misunderstanding with regard to Scripture but rather to engender greater understanding. Notice how Jesus follows this with his own interpretation of several passages from the Torah.

Whoa someone agrees with me about "destroying the Law" and "fufilling it"=P.

Romans 10.1-4 could be rendered: "Brothers, my heart's deepest desire and my prayer to G-d for Israel is for their salvation; for I can testify to their zeal for G-d. But it is not based on correct understanding; for since they are unaware of G-d's way of making people righteous and instead seek to set up their own, they have not submitted themselves to G-d's way of making people righteous. For the goal at which the Torah aims is the Messiah, who offers righteousness to everyone who trusts." Jesus is 'the end of the Law' in the same way that shooting a puck in the net is 'the end of playing hockey'.

We have the same brain >.<

and to this, iwould say, (in my tiny lil' Christian mind)-

If i love G-d with ALL MY HEART, wouldn't i CHOOSE to KEEP the WHOLE LAW-?

or do i show all my love by SELECTIVELY living as commanded-?

do you think i can show the love of ALL MY HEART, by disregarding whatever I FEEL G-D doesn't want-?

or do i show "All the LOVE in my HEART" by IGNORING HIS WORD-??

kinda more rhetorical, i guess-

Well... think about this. The Psalmist who was IN LOVE with G-d said such things as...

"Blessed is the man who has not walked in the counsel of the ungodly, and has not stood in the way of sinners, and has not sat in the seat of scorners. But his delight is only in the Law of the L-rd, and he meditates in His Law day and night."

Psalms 1:1-2

"I delight to do Your will, O My G-d; and Your Law is within My inmost soul."

Psalms 40:8

"Make me understand and I will keep Your Law, and observe it with the whole heart. Make me walk in the way of Your Commands, for in it I delight."

Psalms 119:34-35

"And I shall keep Your Law continually, forever and ever."

Psalms 119:44

etc. etc.

However, in Ephesians 2.14, it refers to the law of man, particularly as it was at the time. The clue is in the words, in 2.15, "by abolishing in his flesh the law with its commandments and regulations".

So Jesus was saying "you still have to live a life with morals, the way I have shown you" but do not take notice of the false regulations that man has put in place".

Correct! At this time Jewish Talmund Traditionalism was taking off, and many rules were being imposed on the Children of Israel by the Pharisees (scribes) and Saducees(priests) that weren't G-d's.

Jesus Christ is not the end of the Law.

The law is G-d's and will always be. He would not give it out and then do away with it. Jesus himself obeyed the law to the letter as G-d wrote it, not as man interprets it. He knew the difference between Rabbi law additions and what G-d wrote

Yay okay there seems to be more people against Antinomianism in the end! I am so happeeeeeeee. But now I gotta get ready for the Shabbat so

Shalom Shabbat! Hope yours is well!

[Guest liarsandmartyrs]

Let's look at it in the Greek. This may or may not help to clearify this to some, but it might help somebody. Let's go a little farther in the scripture to get the best clarity of the verse in question.

2:14 For he is our peace, the one who made both groups into one(28) (Grk

[iammoreorless]

There are a lot of replies to read, but I did like the way cardcaptors first entry explained it.

[Sherman]

Having not read all of the posts thus far, I'd just like to make one point for thought.

Jesus spoke of two groups of people in the Kingdom of God:

1) those who would teach and obey the Law and

2) those who would not teach or obey the Law

Both groups are members of the Kingdom of God, it's just one is said to be greatest and the other is said to be least.

Also, when we read the writings of Paul, we must not forget that he was often countering the teachings of Judizers, Jewish Christians that taught you must obey the Mosaic Law and many if not all of the customs and Oral teachings surrounding the Law. Thus when he is countering these teachings, he sounds like he's against the Mosaic Law, when he clearly says that we should uphold the Law.

Paul also clarified for everyone that salvation is not by obedience, even to the perfect Law of Moses, but salvation is only by grace through faith. And salvation has always been by faith.

Blessings,

Sherman

[Melony]

Oh, I hoped – you joined a discussion at the genal D site also. I have not found anyone that chares.

Melony

[thereselittleflower]

On 1/14/2006 at 7:44 PM, MK202002 said:

Jesus says Mathew 5:17 "Do not think that I have come to abolish the Law or the Prophets; I have not come to abolish them but to fulfill them." and

 

But elsewhere it says:

 

Ephesians 2:14For he himself is our peace, who has made the two one and has destroyed the barrier, the dividing wall of hostility, 15by abolishing in his flesh the law with its commandments and regulations

 

and....Romans 10:4Christ is the end of the law so that there may be righteousness for everyone who believes.

 

Not understanding exactly what Jesus did to the law has brought up a number of questions for me as to what God wants from me (Sabbath, tithing, etc) So far I am discovering God's will in these issues one at a time, but I think if I understood exactly what Jesus did, then I could see a bigger picture, and I would understand more.

 

I read where Paul explains this, but as Peter say 1Peter 3:15 "Paul also wrote you with the wisdom that God gave him. 16He writes the same way in all his letters, speaking in them of these matters. His letters contain some things that are hard to understand"

 

Does anyone have insight? Use little words, please!

 

Paul tells us that the law was a schoolmaster.

• Galatians 3

  The Purpose of the Law

  … 23But before faith came, we were kept under the law, shut up unto the faith which should afterwards be revealed. 24Wherefore the law was our schoolmaster to bring us unto Christ, that we might be justified by faith. 25But after that faith is come, we are no longer under a schoolmaster.

A schoolmaster's purpose is to teach.  When what needs to be taught is learned and understood and this learning and understanding is demonstrated, then the need for the schoolmaster is over.

 

Christ, for all, demonstrated PERFECTLY that the lesson the schoolmaster was given to teach had been learned.   He PERFECTLY fulfilled every part, every requirement the schoolmaster, the law, put before Him.

And so, the lesson having been perfectly learned and demonstrated, perfectly fulfilled, there is no longer any need for the schoolmaster -  there is no longer any need for the law.

 

The word  "fulfill" in Matthew 5:17 is

• πληρόω plēróō, play-ro'-o; from G4134; to make replete, i.e. (literally) to cram (a net), level up (a hollow), or (figuratively) to furnish (or imbue, diffuse, influence), satisfy, execute (an office), finish (a period or task), verify (or coincide with a prediction), etc.:—accomplish, × after, (be) complete, end, expire, fill (up), fulfil, (be, make) full (come), fully preach, perfect, supply.

• Outline of Biblical Usage [?] to make full, to fill up, i.e. to fill to the full to cause to abound, to furnish or supply liberally I abound, I am liberally supplied to render full, i.e. to complete to fill to the top: so that nothing shall be wanting to full measure, fill to the brim to consummate: a number to make complete in every particular, to render perfect to carry through to the end, to accomplish, carry out, (some undertaking) to carry into effect, bring to realisation, realise of matters of duty: to perform, execute of sayings, promises, prophecies, to bring to pass, ratify, accomplish to fulfil, i.e. to cause God's will (as made known in the law) to be obeyed as it should be, and God's promises (given through the prophets) to receive fulfilment

Thayer's Greek Lexicon

STRONGS NT 4137: πληρόω

2. to render full, i. e. to complete;

c. to carry into effect, bring to realization, realize;

γ.universally and absolutely, to fulfil, i. e. "to cause God's will (as made known in the law) to be obeyed as it should be, and God's promises (given through the prophets) to receive fulfilment":Matthew 5:17

 

•  
•  

To "abolish" or "destroy" here in this verse means:

• καταλύω katalýō, kat-al-oo'-o; from G2596 and G3089; to loosen down (disintegrate), i.e. (by implication) to demolish (literally or figuratively); specially (compare G2646) to halt for the night:—destroy, dissolve, be guest, lodge, come to nought,overthrow, throw down.

This simply means that rather than destroy, overthrow, throw down, dissovle, demolish the law - which would not require one keep it - in fact it would require the opposite - that one NOT keep it,   Christ kept the law and perfectly fulfilled it. 

Once it was fulfilled it was no longer needed.

This is a bit different than the word used in Ephesians 2:14

 

• καταργέω katargéō, kat-arg-eh'-o; from G2596 and G691; to be (render) entirely idle (useless), literally or figuratively:—abolish, cease, cumber, deliver, destroy, do away, become (make) of no (none, without) effect, fail, loose, bring (come) to nought, put away (down), vanish away, make void.
• Outline of Biblical Usage [?]

  1. to render idle, unemployed, inactivate, inoperative

     1. to cause a person or thing to have no further efficiency

     2. to deprive of force, influence, power

  2. to cause to cease, put an end to, do away with, annul, abolish

     1. to cease, to pass away, be done away

     2. to be severed from, separated from, discharged from, loosed from any one

     3. to terminate all intercourse with one

 

By fulfilling the law and thus the schoolmater  - the law - no longer being needed, it was rendered idle, unemployed, inactive, inoperative -  it no longer had further efficiency, and so it was deprived of its force, influence and power.   The need for the schoolmaster was no more, so it was put an end to, done away with, annulled, abolished.  We have been discharged from the instruction of the schoomaster - we are no longer under the schoolmaster.   The schoolmaster is no longer needed.

 

Christ fulfilled the law.  Perfectly demonstrated its fulfillment, and ended the need for the law.

We are in Christ.

We are no longer under the Law. 

 

 

 

[simplejeff]

On March 25, 2006 at 1:51 AM, Elihu's Girl said:

What do you mean by "the whole law?" We should try to keep the ten commandments as I said in my post. We should try our hardest to keep the Ten Commandments. Our salvation is in Jesus Christ.

 

 

True.  Keeping the Law doesn't save us eternally.  It does save us from much grief though, and also cause much persecution for ourselves in today's world, as always.   Yahweh gave His WORD to how many peoples ? ((made them distinct from all the other nations))

But ((if you're around)), why 'try' ? Jesus said it is easy - His commandments are not burdensome.

(1) Is someone forcing you to worship other gods ?  (2) Did someone make you curse Yahweh's Name ?  (3) Does your family and worship idols or demons ?  (4) Are you a work-a-holic and can't stop for one day ? OR too weak to work for six days ?   (5)  Do you honor your parents ? Is it hard to obey them ?  (6) Is it hard to refrain from killing somebody every day ? ..... .... ... ... 

Yes, the world purposefully breaks these and more every day, and teaches others so.

They don't 'try' to break them- it comes naturally.

"NEW CREATIONS" don't break them on purpose - we have a new heart TO LISTEN TO PAPA INSTEAD OF the devil/ flesh/ sin!!!   The carnal worldly don't get a choice who to serve.  We do.  "CHOOSE TODAY>"

((but really now - HOW HARD IS IT to honor Yahweh's WORD ? ))