What is the Day of the Lord?

[Daniel 11:36]

Quasar is correct .... no doubt

[iamlamad]

9 hours ago, Quasar93 said:

 

Yes, the man of lawlessness is revealed in verse 3, AFTER the [apostasia/discessio] departure of the Church.  Confirmed in verses 7-8, where the Church is taken out of the way, in verse 7, and in verse 8 the man of lawlessness is again revealed.

Quasar93

So Paul did not mean there was coming a falling away, but rather a catching away. Indeed, the church universal, the body of Christ, has grown in numbers since the beginning. If one "falls away" three take his or her place. There are more believers in Christ in the world today than there was a year ago, and next year there will be more.

 

[Diaste]

16 hours ago, Daniel 11:36 said:

"2:1 Now we beseech you, brethren, by the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ, and by our gathering together unto him"

This notes the gathering of all believers just before He brings His period of wrath and judgment .... these are the pre-tribulation immortals [Revelation 3:10] [Revelation 20:4 .... And I saw thrones, and they sat upon them, and judgment was given unto them]

 

 

 

 

Except for mankind makes up the critical component, timing. Nothing in this verse says anything about timing. But further on it does, and scripture says this gathering occurs AFTER the revealing of the beast. 

[Daniel 11:36]

2:1 Now we beseech you, brethren, by the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ, and by our gathering together unto him

[Diaste]

5 minutes ago, Daniel 11:36 said:

2:1 Now we beseech you, brethren, by the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ, and by our gathering together unto him

 

[Diaste]

Are you afraid to address a person directly? How do we know to whom you're replying?

In any case, nothing in the verse you posted tells us anything about time. There will be two events, but when?

Timing is like, 'before, 'after', 'next', 'then, etc. It's sort of like an appointment has a time. The appointment is the event and the day and hour of the appointment is the time.

In the quoted verse there is an appointment, but no time. What time?

[Daniel 11:36]

"Are you afraid to address a person directly? How do we know to whom you're replying?"

 

You know that you are being addressed

[Quasar93]

1 hour ago, iamlamad said:

So Paul did not mean there was coming a falling away, but rather a catching away. Indeed, the church universal, the body of Christ, has grown in numbers since the beginning. If one "falls away" three take his or her place. There are more believers in Christ in the world today than there was a year ago, and next year there will be more.

 

 

No, Paul DID NOT say the Day of the Lord would not come until the "falling away, " in 2 Thess.2:3, the KJV scribe did, in 1,611 A.D.  Altering the original meaning of the passage from, "the Day of the Lord will not come, until the "departure."  Review the translation historyy of the passage below:

>>>2 Thess.2:1-8: The precise timing of the rapture of the Church:
"Concerning the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ and our being gathered to Him, we ask you, brothers, not to become easily unsettled or alarmed by some prophecy, report or letter supposed to have come from us, saying that the Day of the Lord [The 70th and final Week/seven year tribulation of Dan.9:27] has already come." 2 Thes.2:1-2. Which is a direct reference to 1 Thes.4:17 and the theme of Paul's entire pre-trib rapture message in 2 Thes.2:1-8. When we will be CAUGHT UP TOGETHER WITH THEM IN THE CLOUDS TO MEET THE LORD IN THE AIR. [Parenthetics mine].

The "Day of the Lord" Paul refers to in vs 2, alludes to Dan.9:27, when God will intervene into the affairs of man for the last time, culminating in the second coming of Jesus to the earth. In that passage of Scripture, the Day of the Lord is triggered by the "he" who "confirms a covenant [An agreement] for one Week" [The Day of the Lord/ 70th and final Week/seven year tribulation], who is the antichrist. The second, and same "he," who stops Israel from the offerings and sacrificing in the temple of God, and the third, and same "he," who breaks his covenant in the middle of the Week [After 3.5 of the 7 year total], and sets up the abomination of desolation Jesus referred to in Mt.24:15, in His Olivet Discourse, about the sign of His second coming, and of the end of the age.

In verse 3: "Don't let anyone deceive you in any way, for that Day [The Day of the Lord, the 70th and final Week, the seven year tribulation] will not come, until the "apostasia" [Greek term in which the original translation was "to depart," or "departure," meaning, the rapture of the Church] occurs and the man of lawlessness [The antichrist, and all three of the "he's" in Dan.9:27] is revealed [Who triggers the Day of the Lord/ the 70th and final Week/ the seven year tribulation], the man doomed to destruction." Which reveals the "apostasia" [Departure] will take place before the antichrist is revealed, who triggers the 70th Week/seven year tribulation. Confirmed in verses 7 and 8 below.

Translation History of apostasia and discessio: By Thomas Ice, PhD.
The first seven English translations of apostasia all rendered the noun as either " departure" or " departing." They are as follows: Wycliffe Bible (1384); Tyndale Bible (1526); Coverdale Bible (1535); Cranmer Bible (1539); Breeches Bible (1576); Beza Bible (1583); Geneva Bible (1608) . This supports the notion that the word truly means " departure." In fact, Jerome' s Latin translation known as the Vulgate from around the time of 325 A.D. renders apostasia with the " word discessio, meaning ' departure.' Why was the King James Version the first to depart from the established translation of "departure" in 1611 A.D.? [It is more than likely due to overzealous RCC scribes who altered the original wording of vs 3. to accommodate their teachings of Amillenialism, which rejects both the pre-trib rapture of the Church as well as Jesus Millennial reign her on earth].

Theodore Beza, the Swiss reformer was the first to transliterate apostasia and create a new word, rather than translate it as others had done. The translators of the King James Version were the first to introduce the new rendering of apostasia as " falling away." Most English translators have followed the KJV and Beza in departing from translating apostasia as " departure." No reason was ever given.

"He [The antichrist] will oppose and will exalt himself over everything that is called God or is worshiped, so that he sets himself up in God's temple, proclaiming himself to be God." Vs 4. [The abomination of desolation, confirming Dan.9:27 and Mt.24:15]. See also 2 Thes.2:4.

The rapture of the Church and verse 3 confirmed:
In verse 7: "For the secret power of lawlessness is already at work; but the one who now holds it back will continue to do so until he [The saints - Church] is taken out of the way."

The "he" who will be taken out of the way, is the one body of Christ, who bear the Holy Spirit within each of us [Eph.1:13-14], the Church of Jesus Christ. The very same as those who will participate in the "apostasia," the "departure," [the rapture] of the Church, in vs 3. Immediately following that:

In verse 8: "And then the lawless one [The antichrist] will be revealed, whom the Lord Jesus will overthrow with the breath of His mouth and destroy by the splendor of His coming." Vs 8. [See Rev.19:17-21].

The antichrist is found in all three of the "he's" in Dan. 9:27, confirmed by Jesus in Mt.24:15; Mk.13:14 and by Paul, in 2 Thes.2:3, 4 and 8.<<<

 

Qusar93

[iamlamad]

1 hour ago, Quasar93 said:

 

No, Paul DID NOT say the Day of the Lord would not come until the "falling away, " in 2 Thess.2:3, the KJV scribe did, in 1,611 A.D.  Altering the original meaning of the passage from, "the Day of the Lord will not come, until the "departure."  Review the translation historyy of the passage below:

...
The antichrist is found in all three of the "he's" in Dan. 9:27, confirmed by Jesus in Mt.24:15; Mk.13:14 and by Paul, in 2 Thes.2:3, 4 and 8.<<<

Qusar93

I agree with you. Paul wrote that the apostasia must come first, and then the man of sin revealed. You and I know that Paul's meaning was THE (significant) departing - and in accordance with Paul's theme of the rapture, of course it is the departing of the church via rapture.

[iamlamad]

2 hours ago, Quasar93 said:

 

...

The "Day of the Lord" Paul refers to in vs 2, alludes to Dan.9:27, when God will intervene into the affairs of man for the last time, culminating in the second coming of Jesus to the earth. In that passage of Scripture, the Day of the Lord is triggered by the "he" who "confirms a covenant [An agreement] for one Week" [The Day of the Lord/ 70th and final Week/seven year tribulation], who is the antichrist. The second, and same "he," who stops Israel from the offerings and sacrificing in the temple of God, and the third, and same "he," who breaks his covenant in the middle of the Week [After 3.5 of the 7 year total], and sets up the abomination of desolation Jesus referred to in Mt.24:15, in His Olivet Discourse, about the sign of His second coming, and of the end of the age.

In verse 3: "Don't let anyone deceive you in any way, for that Day [The Day of the Lord, the 70th and final Week, the seven year tribulation] will not come, until the "apostasia" [Greek term in which the original translation was "to depart," or "departure," meaning, the rapture of the Church] occurs and the man of lawlessness [The antichrist, and all three of the "he's" in Dan.9:27] is revealed [Who triggers the Day of the Lord/ the 70th and final Week/ the seven year tribulation], the man doomed to destruction." Which reveals the "apostasia" [Departure] will take place before the antichrist is revealed, who triggers the 70th Week/seven year tribulation. Confirmed in verses 7 and 8 below.
...

...

Qusar93

The "Day of the Lord" and the 70th week of Daniel are NOT two titles for the same thing. They are different. For example, one ill last only for 2520 days. The Day of the Lord starts before the 70th week and continues on after the 70th week ends.

Edited December 26, 2017 by iamlamad