What is lawlessness

[Wayne222]

       1 John says sin is lawlessness. And 1 John says a born again believer does not sin. A believer does not live by his own rules. I think that is what is lawlessness. A person who has his own rules and not God's commandments. So when it says a born again believer does not sin it means he does not live by his own rules. Because even believers can sin and do. 

[Leonardo Von]

Lawlessness is to live without any restriction, pursuant to what seems good to our eyes.

[Sower]

On 8/22/2022 at 7:40 PM, Wayne222 said:

A person who has his own rules and not God's commandments.

"But if we walk in the light, as he is in the light, we have fellowship with one another,
and the blood of Jesus his Son cleanses us from all sin"   1 John 1:7

[Ancient]

Lawlessness is opposite to lawful. Law in Hebrew is Torah.

Shalom

[Starise]

A born again believer begins to see the lawlessness that is in them and they realize it is sinful, whereas the non believer has no such thoughts. They are perfectly content to continue to be lawless and they like to hang with others who are lawless.Probably high fiving each other on who can get away with the most at someone else's expense.

We as believers hate it every time we slip up, especially when we have to admit it was because of our own stubbornness and desire to do something we were told not to do. We knew better but we did it anyways. The Holy Spirit living in us will not let us rest until we have repented of our sins. For us good living is right living. We answer to the Lord. The lost will answer to the Lord at the very end only because they had to. The believer seeks the Lord's ways.

Edited August 26, 2022 by Starise

[JohnR7]

458 anomía (from 1 /A "not" and 3551 /nómos, "law") – properly, without law;

lawlessness; the utter disregard for God's law (His written and living Word).

458 /anomía ("lawlessness") includes the end-impact of law breaking – i.e. its negative influence on a person's soul (status before God).

It looks like we get the word anomaly from the Greek word for lawlessness. David declares his love for the Law of God in Psalm 139. The law establishes a standard for us to follow for our own benefit and well-being. 

[AdHoc]

On 8/23/2022 at 2:40 AM, Wayne222 said:

       1 John says sin is lawlessness. And 1 John says a born again believer does not sin. A believer does not live by his own rules. I think that is what is lawlessness. A person who has his own rules and not God's commandments. So when it says a born again believer does not sin it means he does not live by his own rules. Because even believers can sin and do. 

The KJV renders this verse thus;

9 Whosoever is born of God doth not commit sin; for his seed remaineth in him: and he cannot sin, because he is born of God.

But two words are loosely rendered. They are not wrong, but if we are more precise to the meaning of the Greek, we must render:
"Whosoever" means "all", or, if the article is absent, it means "every species or kind"
"HE" is part of the verb

Our eminent translators took the way of logic and gave it the meaning of a person, because only angels and people can sin. But suppose we were strict. Then the verse would be; 

9 Every kind that is born of God doth not commit sin; for no other seed remaineth in him: and cannot sin, because he (it) is born of God.

At first this looks suspect until we see what is born of God. A man is born of a woman, having his ORIGIN in the womb. That which is born of God is the HUMAN SPIRIT (Jn.3:6). The whole New Testament testifies that men, even Christians, sin. But the sin is either the soul (by thought, lust or emotion), or in the flesh (by word or deed). The spirit is where God dwells (Jn.4:24) and the incident of the incestuous man in 1st Corinthians 5 shows us that God will protect His integrity and slay the man so that the sin does not overflow into the human spirit.

May I propose that 1st John 3:9 above allows, and shows, that that which is born of God is the human spirit and NOT the soul and flesh of men. As Romans Chapter 7 and Galatians 5:17 show, we still sin. But that exclusive bit of territory, the human spirit is free of sin. If so, the literal translation which is proposed above can be correct. This rendering also takes care of 1st John 1:8-10.

[missmuffet]

What does the Bible say about lawlessness?

https://www.gotquestions.org

ANSWER

To be lawless is to be contrary to the law or to act without regard to the law. Laws are necessary in a sinful world (1 Timothy 1:9), and those who choose to act lawlessly further sin in the world. The word for “lawlessness” in the Bible is often translated “iniquity.” According to the Bible, the root of all lawlessness is rebellion.

First John 3:4 defines sin as lawlessness: “Everyone who sins breaks the law; in fact, sin is lawlessness.” To commit sin is to be lawless; that is, the sinner breaks God’s law. In this way, lawlessness is a rejection of God. Satan, who models the ultimate rejection of God, will one day empower the Antichrist, called “the lawless one,” whose rise to power “will be in accordance with how Satan works” (2 Thessalonians 2:9).

Lawlessness is contrasted with righteousness in verses such as Romans 6:19, 2 Corinthians 6:14, and Hebrews 1:9. The righteous, who have the nature of Jesus Christ, hate the deeds of lawlessness. Lot, a godly man living in Sodom, “was tormented in his righteous soul by the lawless deeds he saw and heard” (2 Peter 2:8). The psalmist said, “I abhor the assembly of evildoers and refuse to sit with the wicked” (Psalm 26:5). Christians are to be law-abiding (1 Peter 4:15).

When a society ignores the law, lawlessness is the result, and chaos ensues. The time of the judges after Joshua’s death was marked by upheaval, oppression, and general disorder. The biblical historian puts his finger on the reason for the tumult: “In those days Israel had no king; everyone did as they saw fit” (Judges 21:25). The riot in Ephesus is a good example of lawlessness in action (Acts 19). The rioters were confused and unsure even of why they were rioting (verse 32); in their lawlessness, they were ignoring proper legal channels (verse 39) and, of course, breaking the law (verse 40).

God has a purpose for establishing human government: “to punish those who do wrong and to commend those who do right” (1 Peter 2:14). Rulers are God’s appointees to maintain order and promote righteousness in a civil society. “Consequently, whoever rebels against the authority is rebelling against what God has instituted, and those who do so will bring judgment on themselves” (Romans 13:2). In other words, lawlessness is condemned in Scripture.

The Bible connects man’s lawlessness and rebellion against God with his need for God’s forgiveness. In Romans 4:7, Paul (quoting Psalm 32:1) says, “Blessed are those whose lawless deeds are forgiven, and whose sins are covered” (ESV). God’s righteousness is imputed to us at salvation, and God forgives us of our lawlessness: “Their sins and lawless acts I will remember no more” (Hebrews 10:17, quoting Jeremiah 31:34). Christ died on the cross “to redeem us from all lawlessness and to purify for himself a people for his own possession who are zealous for good works” (Titus 2:14, ESV). Our lawless deeds resulted in Christ’s death, but God’s grace overcomes our lawless hearts.

In the judgment many will stand before Christ claiming a connection with Him that exists only in their own minds. They will rehearse their good deeds done in His name, only to hear Jesus declare them to be “workers of lawlessness” whom Christ never knew (Matthew 7:23, ESV). At that time, those who practice lawlessness will be cast “into the blazing furnace,” while those who are covered by the righteousness of Christ “will shine like the sun” (Matthew 13:41–43). Christ will have the ultimate victory and will eliminate lawlessness forever.

Edited August 26, 2022 by missmuffet

[AdHoc]

1 hour ago, missmuffet said:

What does the Bible say about lawlessness?

https://www.gotquestions.org

ANSWER

To be lawless is to be contrary to the law or to act without regard to the law. Laws are necessary in a sinful world (1 Timothy 1:9), and those who choose to act lawlessly further sin in the world. The word for “lawlessness” in the Bible is often translated “iniquity.” According to the Bible, the root of all lawlessness is rebellion.

First John 3:4 defines sin as lawlessness: “Everyone who sins breaks the law; in fact, sin is lawlessness.” To commit sin is to be lawless; that is, the sinner breaks God’s law. In this way, lawlessness is a rejection of God. Satan, who models the ultimate rejection of God, will one day empower the Antichrist, called “the lawless one,” whose rise to power “will be in accordance with how Satan works” (2 Thessalonians 2:9).

Lawlessness is contrasted with righteousness in verses such as Romans 6:19, 2 Corinthians 6:14, and Hebrews 1:9. The righteous, who have the nature of Jesus Christ, hate the deeds of lawlessness. Lot, a godly man living in Sodom, “was tormented in his righteous soul by the lawless deeds he saw and heard” (2 Peter 2:8). The psalmist said, “I abhor the assembly of evildoers and refuse to sit with the wicked” (Psalm 26:5). Christians are to be law-abiding (1 Peter 4:15).

When a society ignores the law, lawlessness is the result, and chaos ensues. The time of the judges after Joshua’s death was marked by upheaval, oppression, and general disorder. The biblical historian puts his finger on the reason for the tumult: “In those days Israel had no king; everyone did as they saw fit” (Judges 21:25). The riot in Ephesus is a good example of lawlessness in action (Acts 19). The rioters were confused and unsure even of why they were rioting (verse 32); in their lawlessness, they were ignoring proper legal channels (verse 39) and, of course, breaking the law (verse 40).

God has a purpose for establishing human government: “to punish those who do wrong and to commend those who do right” (1 Peter 2:14). Rulers are God’s appointees to maintain order and promote righteousness in a civil society. “Consequently, whoever rebels against the authority is rebelling against what God has instituted, and those who do so will bring judgment on themselves” (Romans 13:2). In other words, lawlessness is condemned in Scripture.

The Bible connects man’s lawlessness and rebellion against God with his need for God’s forgiveness. In Romans 4:7, Paul (quoting Psalm 32:1) says, “Blessed are those whose lawless deeds are forgiven, and whose sins are covered” (ESV). God’s righteousness is imputed to us at salvation, and God forgives us of our lawlessness: “Their sins and lawless acts I will remember no more” (Hebrews 10:17, quoting Jeremiah 31:34). Christ died on the cross “to redeem us from all lawlessness and to purify for himself a people for his own possession who are zealous for good works” (Titus 2:14, ESV). Our lawless deeds resulted in Christ’s death, but God’s grace overcomes our lawless hearts.

In the judgment many will stand before Christ claiming a connection with Him that exists only in their own minds. They will rehearse their good deeds done in His name, only to hear Jesus declare them to be “workers of lawlessness” whom Christ never knew (Matthew 7:23, ESV). At that time, those who practice lawlessness will be cast “into the blazing furnace,” while those who are covered by the righteousness of Christ “will shine like the sun” (Matthew 13:41–43). Christ will have the ultimate victory and will eliminate lawlessness forever.

Nice posting. And a valuable summary.

[Dennis1209]

11 hours ago, AdHoc said:

The KJV renders this verse thus;

9 Whosoever is born of God doth not commit sin; for his seed remaineth in him: and he cannot sin, because he is born of God.

But two words are loosely rendered. They are not wrong, but if we are more precise to the meaning of the Greek, we must render:
"Whosoever" means "all", or, if the article is absent, it means "every species or kind"
"HE" is part of the verb

Our eminent translators took the way of logic and gave it the meaning of a person, because only angels and people can sin. But suppose we were strict. Then the verse would be; 

9 Every kind that is born of God doth not commit sin; for no other seed remaineth in him: and cannot sin, because he (it) is born of God.

At first this looks suspect until we see what is born of God. A man is born of a woman, having his ORIGIN in the womb. That which is born of God is the HUMAN SPIRIT (Jn.3:6). The whole New Testament testifies that men, even Christians, sin. But the sin is either the soul (by thought, lust or emotion), or in the flesh (by word or deed). The spirit is where God dwells (Jn.4:24) and the incident of the incestuous man in 1st Corinthians 5 shows us that God will protect His integrity and slay the man so that the sin does not overflow into the human spirit.

May I propose that 1st John 3:9 above allows, and shows, that that which is born of God is the human spirit and NOT the soul and flesh of men. As Romans Chapter 7 and Galatians 5:17 show, we still sin. But that exclusive bit of territory, the human spirit is free of sin. If so, the literal translation which is proposed above can be correct. This rendering also takes care of 1st John 1:8-10.

1 John 5:16 (KJV) If any man see his brother sin a sin which is not unto death, he shall ask, and he shall give him life for them that sin not unto death. There is a sin unto death: I do not say that he shall pray for it.

You briefly alluded to this in your response. This is about brothers in Christ, and this sin must be premature physical death, I’m thinking. I relate this to Ananias & Sapphira sinning a sin unto physical death, not spiritual condemnation.

I think this premature physical death is to save the soul. Before a Christian goes too far in unrepentant sin, I suspect they are called home, and their lives cut short. I deduce that Ananias and Sapphira had saving faith and were not damned. Lying to the Holy Spirit was the cause for immediate physical termination.

What are your thoughts about “a sin unto death?”

There have been some pretty good discussions here lately.