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Posted

 

The way @Sower worded his questions, it was almost like a riddle. Technically it probably is a riddle. Riddles are few and far in between in the bible. Parables we have, however riddles not so much.;)

And I know when Sower asks me a question he already knows the answer.:D

I really drew my answer out there, but in short- Jesus

Or is that too short?


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Posted
9 hours ago, Starise said:

 

The way @Sower worded his questions, it was almost like a riddle. Technically it probably is a riddle. Riddles are few and far in between in the bible. Parables we have, however riddles not so much.;)

And I know when Sower asks me a question he already knows the answer.:D

I really drew my answer out there, but in short- Jesus

Or is that too short?

Sower said;
"Question, Starise.
Who are those that are the least in the kingdom of God?
Why are they
( the least) greater than the greatest prophet born of a women?"

I never did a study, and made assumptions, thinking it was self explanatory.
I have always had the idea that those prior to the crucifixion had the law vs the age of grace.  OT law-they saw, NT grace, not seen, faith.

"Truly, I say to you, among those born of women there has arisen no one greater than John the Baptist. Yet the one who is least in the kingdom of heaven is greater than he" Matthew 11:11

I thought the greatest were those who, by grace through faith believed and were of such great faith and faithful servants, sold out for Christ the Savior.

I assumed the least were those who, by grace through faith believed, and entered the kingdom by the skin of their teeth. Even though they were the least, the word says(above)  the one who is least in the kingdom of heaven is greater than John the Baptist!

"I tell you the truth, unless you change and become like little children, you will never enter the kingdom of heaven. Therefore, whoever humbles himself like this child is the greatest in the kingdom of heaven. "And whoever welcomes a little child like this in my name welcomes me. (Not by the law--by grace/faith)

And then;

"Whosoever therefore shall break one of these least commandments, and shall teach men so, he shall be called the least in the kingdom of heaven: but whosoever shall do and teach them, the same shall be called great in the kingdom of heaven" Matthew 5:19

So this explains who are the least and greatest in the kingdom of  God/heaven.
But why are they greater than John the Baptist,

A quote;
“John came baptizing in the wilderness and preaching a baptism of repentance for the remission of sins.”Jesus says that the law and the prophets ruled until John, and the little word there, “until,” means “up to and including” John.

And I found this by John;

 “I baptize you with water for repentance, but he who is coming after me is mightier than I, whose sandals I am not worthy to carry. He will baptize you with the Holy Spirit and fire. Matthew 3:11

 

Was looking for a surer understanding of why the least in the kingdom of God is greater than John the Baptist, of whom born of a women there was none greater? What sets us apart? Scriptural evidence, like above, the spirit within us and not upon us, as in the OT. No riddle, just a question.


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Posted

I have a question.  My eschatology isn't very good.  But something struck me when I thought about it.  It seems to me that the linear sequence of events (yes I know people have different views on this) is Jesus comes back and the rapture happens but somehow everybody is resurrected and lives on the earth for a 1000 years, however, in Isaiah it says people will live longer lives, up to 300 years.  So presumably, during this millenium period, people will die a SECOND DEATH.  Yet, Revelation says the second death is the lake of fire.

 

Help?


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Posted (edited)
7 hours ago, JohannPretorius said:

Can you give scriptural evidence for this?
That's why I don't open my mouth too much.

what is that  you are requiring about? Please make your self understood...

What is that you want to talked about?

Did you find something in the post that is not supported by scripture, please bring it up...Iron sharpens Iron...knife sharpens knife. 

John the Baptist died before Jesus...if he did not die before Jesus he was not the "prodromos" John had to go before the Lord and his mission was to prepare the way for him, to announce him to others and waiting for Jesus to come to where he was.. Prodromos....going before the Lord to prepare the way for his arrival.,

When John the Baptist the son of Zacarias the Priest his mission did not end with his death, his mission continued...

John the Baptist the Son of  Zacarias the Priest died before the Cross...do you have original scripture to the contrary?

Maybe a lexicon comment to the contrary? 

 

Edited by Your closest friendnt

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Posted
On 10/7/2022 at 1:26 PM, Dan Knight said:

which is funny cause it aint their's to bring about.

We are the restraining force. Or the Holy Spirit in us. 


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Posted
1 hour ago, JohnR7 said:

We are the restraining force. Or the Holy Spirit in us. 

? Elaborate please. I assume "we" are Christian Folk.  How do we restrain?

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Posted
On 9/12/2022 at 1:05 PM, Starise said:

I can't guarantee I'll be able to answer everything.

Please no silly questions like - Did Adam have a belly button?

I don't think I have ever heard it said that the OT Passover has nothing to do with NT Passover.  Or that Jesus name was never mentioned in the OT. Is that common among Christians? 

I  mean this in all do respect. 


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Posted
1 minute ago, Dan Knight said:

I don't think I have ever heard it said that the OT Passover has nothing to do with NT Passover.  Or that Jesus name was never mentioned in the OT. Is that common among Christians? 

I  mean this in all do respect. 

I think that these questions are very respectful and help a believer grow...

It was a super question because it seeks to look at how was this possible? 

This what is asking...was it possible? 

Jesus was born after all those things took place...and if we looked of how Jesus was born going through the suckle of a man...beginning to form in his mother's womb...

There is something else and that must be considered and not with a light mind...and this is when Jesus said that "before Abraham was; "ego eime" "I existed". 

Jesus did not say that he existed as he was standing before them...recognize as Jesus... because the Pharisees brought that up and Jesus agree and did bot denied it...

The question then is how did Jesus was recognized before his birth in Bethlehem? We have excluded that he was recognized in the same way he was recognized when he spoke those words to Pharisees "before Abraham I was" Jesus said that he was not recognize in the same way he was at that moment as the man Jesus...


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Posted
22 minutes ago, Dan Knight said:

I don't think I have ever heard it said that the OT Passover has nothing to do with NT Passover.  Or that Jesus name was never mentioned in the OT. Is that common among Christians? 

I  mean this in all do respect. 

OT Passover NT Passover.. the way you said I never heard that either. As for Christs name.. it was a common name..lol not Jesus Yeshua. 


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Posted (edited)
6 minutes ago, TheBlade said:

OT Passover NT Passover.. the way you said I never heard that either. As for Christs name.. it was a common name..lol not Jesus Yeshua. 

Am I missing something what was the OT Passover and what it is the Passover. Do you know? 

 

Edited by Your closest friendnt
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