Revelation 1:10 - "The Lord's Day". What is this scripturally?

[DignifiedResponse]

7 hours ago, Riverwalker said:

Isaiah 58:13

“If you keep your feet from breaking the Sabbath and from doing as you please on my holy day, if you call the Sabbath a delight and the Lord’s holy day honorable, and if you honor it by not going your own way and not doing as you please or speaking idle words,

 

The only biblical reference  I found was about the Sabbath...but then there is also Judgement day (DignifiedResponse highlighted, for I am responding to this portion.)

Some have said that "the Lord's day" of Revelation 1:10 is not any particular day of the week (seventh day or first day), but that it is to represent the eschatological "Day of the LORD", or "Judgment Day", but this is not possible from the context itself.

Revelation says that John while on the Isle of Patmos for (because of_ believing and living according to) the "word of God", and for "the testimony of Jesus Christ" (vss 1,9) was "in the Spirit" (Holy Spirit, which is who gave the vision to John, see vs 4, "the Seven spirits" (7 being the representative number of completeness, and ties into the language of the Sanctuary/Tabernacle/Temple of God as the 7 branch candlesticks, see vss 12,20) "on" (a particular day of the week (either 1,2,3,4,5,6,7) that John was presently experiencing to have been given this vision "the Lord's day".

Another reason that the phrase "the Lord's day" cannot refer to the eschatological "Day of the LORD" is because that which John sees in Revelation 1, does not refer to anything that deals with the eschatological events of "Day of the LORD", except for vs 7, which was yet future to John's day.  John sees and hears 'Jesus' (vss 10-20) this is true, but Jesus is not seen coming in the cloud of glory, but is seen "in the midst of the seven candlesticks" (vs 13), which is in the Holy Place of the Heavenly Temple (Hebrews 8:5; 9:23; Revelation 11:19, 15:5), and even dressed, not as KING of Kings and LORD of Lords (Revelation 19:11-16), but as a HighPriest is dressed (vss 13-15) which means tht Jesus was still then ministering in Heaven, while the Gospel was still going forward that men might be saved.  When Jesus changes garments to being dressed as KING of Kings and LORD of Lords, coming with the clouds (angels) of Heaven in the fullness of glory, the Gospel is no longer effective, and His ministration there in Heaven is over.

Another reason that the phrase "the Lord's day" cannot refer to the eschatological "Day of the LORD" is because John is not merely shown the "future", but as it is said in the very context of Revelation 1 - he is shown the past, present and future:

For instance Revelation 1:7, shows the future coming of Jesus:

Rev 1:7  Behold, he cometh with clouds; and every eye shall see him, and they also which pierced him: and all kindreds of the earth shall wail because of him. Even so, Amen.

Yet that was not all.  Consider:

Rev 1:19  Write the things which thou hast seen, and the things which are, and the things which shall be hereafter;

[1] past - thou hast seen

[2] present - the things which are

[3] future - the things which shall be hereafter

So, John was definitely not "in" or "on" the "Day of the LORD" (which was still future to his own day, and yea even ours), when receiving the vision.

So, just a recap.

[1] Jesus's dress precludes "the Lord's day" from being "the Day of the LORD".

[2] Jesus' location precludes "the Lord's day" from being "the Day of the LORD".

[3] the immediate context of what John was shown precludes "the Lord's day" from being "the Day of the LORD".

Let's consider a fourth reason.  The language itself.

Revelation 1:10:

Rev 1:10  I was in the Spirit on the Lord's day, and heard behind me a great voice, as of a trumpet,

Rev 1:10  εγενομην εν πνευματι εν τη κυριακη ημερα και ηκουσα οπισω μου φωνην μεγαλην ως σαλπιγγος

Rev 1:10  I wasG1096 inG1722 the SpiritG4151 onG1722 theG3588 Lord'sG2960 day,G2250 andG2532 heardG191 behindG3694 meG3450 a greatG3173 voice,G5456 asG5613 of a trumpet,G4536

Rev 1:10  εγενομηνG1096 V-2ADI-1S ενG1722 PREP πνευματιG4151 N-DSN ενG1722 PREP τηG3588 T-DSF κυριακηG2960 A-DSF ημεραG2250 N-DSF καιG2532 CONJ ηκουσαG191 V-AAI-1S οπισωG3694 ADV μουG1473 P-1GS φωνηνG5456 N-ASF μεγαληνG3173 A-ASF ωςG5613 ADV σαλπιγγοςG4536 N-GSF

(in short, I know there are longer koine Greek reasons, but this is just a summary thought)

The word "κυριακη" (translit. "kuriake") is an Adjective - Dative - Singular - Feminine.  This means it is being used as a 'possessive' ("of", see 1 Corinthians 11:20, "the Lord's supper"), which means the "day" in context belongs to "the Lord".  It is literally "the Lord's (belonging to) day".  This means, that the "day" in context is uniquely "the Lord's" out of all the 7 days of the week, for the day under consideration is that which exists within the week, as a day which repeats weekly.  This is extremely important, as those who incorrectly assume it to mean "the first [day] of the week" in lieu of Jesus' resurrection, cannot get a weekly occurrence out of a one-time event, in fulfilment of typology of the Firstfruit/Wavesheaf in Leviticus 23:9-14, as made known in 1 Corinthians 15:20,23.

This is not as the phrase "day of the Lord" (ἡμέρα κυρίου) which is written in the genitive masculine case (see 2 Peter 3:10, etc, and also so called septuaginta uses).
 

In Isaiah 58:13 we read of "the Lord's holy day", which refers to the seventh day of the week, the sabbath of the Lord.

 

In the rest of Isaiah, when he refers, by inspiration of the Holy Ghost, to "the Day of the LORD", it is always in a differing phrase and context. See:

 

Isaiah 2:12, 13:6,9, 34:8

Others say it like this:

"the day of the LORD"

Jeremiah 46:10
Lamentations 2:22
Ezekiel 13:5, 30:3
Joel 1:15, 2:1,11,31, 3:14
Amos 5:18,20
Obadiah 1:15
Zephaniah 1:7,8,14,18, 2:2,3, 14:1
Malachi 4:5
Acts 2:20
1 Corinthians 5:5
2 Corinthians 1:14
1 Thessalonians 5:2
2 Peter 3:10

"the day of their calamity"
Deuteronomy 32:35

"the day of vengeance"
Proverbs 6:34

"the day of the LORD's anger"
Lamentations 2:22

"day of the LORD's vengeance"
Isaiah 34:8

"the day of vengeance of our God"
Isaiah 61:2

"the day of vengeance"
Isaiah 63:4

"the day of the LORD's wrath"
Zephaniah 1:18

"Day of God"
2 Peter 3:12

"great day of God Almighty"
Revelation 16:14

Notice, that even John, when writing elsewhere in the book of Revelation, when referring to "the Day of the LORD", calls it "great day of God Almighty" (Revelation 16:14), and not "the Lord's Day", as in Revelation 1:10.

That is 4 solid contextual reasons to preclude the meaning of "the Lord's day" from being the eschatological "Day of the LORD".

In Latin, we see it similarly used in Exodus 20 (Latin is without the definite article, as Latin does not use definite articles):

Rev 1:10  fui in spiritu in dominica die et audivi post me vocem magnam tamquam tubae

Exo 20:8  memento ut diem sabbati sanctifices

Exo 20:9  sex diebus operaberis et facies omnia opera tua

Exo 20:10  septimo autem die sabbati Domini Dei tui non facies omne opus tu et filius tuus et filia tua servus tuus et ancilla tua iumentum tuum et advena qui est intra portas tuas

Exo 20:11  sex enim diebus fecit Dominus caelum et terram et mare et omnia quae in eis sunt et requievit in die septimo idcirco benedixit Dominus diei sabbati et sanctificavit eum

Which is akin to Genesis' "God's day":

Gen 2:1  igitur perfecti sunt caeli et terra et omnis ornatus eorum

Gen 2:2  conplevitque Deus die septimo opus suum quod fecerat et requievit die septimo ab universo opere quod patrarat

Gen 2:3  et benedixit diei septimo et sanctificavit illum quia in ipso cessaverat ab omni opere suo quod creavit Deus ut faceret

Whereas the differing apocalyptic day, "the day of the Lord" in Latin is "dies Domini" as in Zephaniah 1:14:

Zep 1:14  iuxta est dies Domini magnus iuxta et velox nimis vox diei Domini amara tribulabitur ibi fortis

In Isaiah 58:13, we read of a "day" that "the Lord" specifically calls "my day":

Isa 58:13  If thou turn away thy foot from the sabbath, from doing thy pleasure on my holy day; and call the sabbath a delight, the holy of the LORD, honourable; and shalt honour him, not doing thine own ways, nor finding thine own pleasure, nor speaking thine own words:

In many translations of Isaiah 58:13 we read that the 7th day, the sabbath of the Lord, is said to be "the Lord's holy day", with the word holy being another adjective, while the "Lord's" is possessive. - /Isaiah 58:13 - Bible Gateway

 

Thus when reading Isaiah 58:13 with simple pronoun substitution, it would read "... the ... [Lord's] day ...", just as it does in Exodus 20:8-11.

Exo 20:8  Remember the sabbath day, to keep it holy.

Exo 20:9  Six days shalt thou labour, and do all thy work:

Exo 20:10  But the seventh day is the sabbath of the LORD thy God: in it thou shalt not do any work, thou, nor thy son, nor thy daughter, thy manservant, nor thy maidservant, nor thy cattle, nor thy stranger that is within thy gates:

Exo 20:11  For in six days the LORD made heaven and earth, the sea, and all that in them is, and rested the seventh day: wherefore the LORD blessed the sabbath day, and hallowed it.

In Genesis we see why this day is uniquely "Gods'", or "the Lord's" day, for in it God rested.  This is the reason Jesus could say:

Mat 12:8  For the Son of man is Lord even of the sabbath day.

Edited December 31, 2020 by DignifiedResponse
clarification, correction

[DignifiedResponse]

Let's get the immediate context of Revelation 1:10, and see what it has for us:

 

The context shows that the "day" spoken of, in each texts presented is "the LORD('s)". John as a physical Jew, who was following the Messiah (Jesus), thus a Christian, was on the Isle of Patmos, for what reason?

 

Rev 1:2 Who bare record of the word of God, and of the testimony of Jesus Christ, and of all things that he saw.

Rev 1:9 I John, who also am your brother, and companion in tribulation, and in the kingdom and patience of Jesus Christ, was in the isle that is called Patmos, for the word of God, and for the testimony of Jesus Christ.

It is even given in other places:

Rev_6:9 And when he had opened the fifth seal, I saw under the altar the souls of them that were slain for the word of God, and for the testimony which they held:

Rev_20:4 And I saw thrones, and they sat upon them, and judgment was given unto them: and I saw the souls of them that were beheaded for the witness of Jesus, and for the word of God, and which had not worshipped the beast, neither his image, neither had received his mark upon their foreheads, or in their hands; and they lived and reigned with Christ a thousand years.

What is this "word of God" and the "testimony/witness of Jesus"?

We do not have to in any way guess, for John tells us in parallel fashion:

Rev 12:17 And the dragon was wroth with the woman, and went to make war with the remnant of her seed, which keep the commandments of God, and have the testimony of Jesus Christ.

This is found way back in the OT:

Deu_4:2 Ye shall not add unto the word which I command you, neither shall ye diminish ought from it, that ye may keep the commandments of the LORD your God which I command you.

So, when John references "the Lord's day", it is in the context of "the word of God", which are God's Commandments.

Well, which commandment then?

Again, we do not have to guess, for John tells us:

Rev 14:7 Saying with a loud voice, Fear God, and give glory to him; for the hour of his judgment is come: and worship him that made heaven, and earth, and the sea, and the fountains of waters.

Rev 14:12 Here is the patience of the saints: here are they that keep the commandments of God, and the faith of Jesus.

What specific commandment, was John citing? The 4th Commandment, specifically, Exodus 20:11,

Exo 20:11 For in six days the LORD made heaven and earth, the sea, and all that in them is, and rested the seventh day: wherefore the LORD blessed the sabbath day, and hallowed it.

The whole Commandment:

Exo 20:8 Remember the sabbath day, to keep it holy.
Exo 20:9 Six days shalt thou labour, and do all thy work:
Exo 20:10 But the seventh day is the sabbath of the LORD thy God: in it thou shalt not do any work, thou, nor thy son, nor thy daughter, thy manservant, nor thy maidservant, nor thy cattle, nor thy stranger that is within thy gates:
Exo 20:11 For in six days the LORD made heaven and earth, the sea, and all that in them is, and rested the seventh day: wherefore the LORD blessed the sabbath day, and hallowed it.

That little word "of" is possessive. Thus when God speaks, by His own voice, the He (the LORD) has chosen a specific (definite article) "day", it is thus "the LORD('s) ... day", being His sabbath, the 7th day, from the foundation of the world in Genesis 2:1-3,4, where therein it is "God('s; the LORD's) ... day".

The "word of God" = God's commandments:

Isa_1:10 Hear the word of the LORD, ye rulers of Sodom; give ear unto the law of our God, ye people of Gomorrah.

 

It's in parallel.

and the "testimony of Jesus" is the Spirit of prophecy (Revelation 19:10), and as found all throughout scripture:

2Ki_17:13 Yet the LORD testified against Israel, and against Judah, by all the prophets, and by all the seers, saying, Turn ye from your evil ways, and keep my commandments and my statutes, according to all the law which I commanded your fathers, and which I sent to you by my servants the prophets.

Psa_19:7 The law of the LORD is perfect, converting the soul: the testimony of the LORD is sure, making wise the simple.

Psa_78:5 For he established a testimony in Jacob, and appointed a law in Israel, which he commanded our fathers, that they should make them known to their children

Pro_29:18 Where there is no vision, the people perish: but he that keepeth the law, happy is he.
:
Isa_8:16 Bind up the testimony, seal the law among my disciples.

Isa_8:20 To the law and to the testimony: if they speak not according to this word, it is because there is no light in them.

Lam_2:9 Her gates are sunk into the ground; he hath destroyed and broken her bars: her king and her princes are among the Gentiles: the law is no more; her prophets also find no vision from the LORD.

Eze_7:26 Mischief shall come upon mischief, and rumour shall be upon rumour; then shall they seek a vision of the prophet; but the law shall perish from the priest, and counsel from the ancients.

Mat_22:40 On these two commandments hang all the law and the prophets.

Rom_3:21 But now the righteousness of God without the law is manifested, being witnessed by the law and the prophets;

Therefore, notice again the connection of the Apostle and prophet John, who receives a "vision", in connection with keeping God's commandments, and was resting specifically on "the LORD's day":

Rev 1:10 I was in the Spirit on the Lord's day, and heard behind me a great voice, as of a trumpet,

The Law (Lord's day) and the testimony (spirit of prophecy) again are witnessed therein in its proper context.

It always speaks of the 7th day the sabbath of the LORD, His holy day.

Line upon line, and no need for a single non-scriptural source.

[DignifiedResponse]

4 hours ago, Riverwalker said:

Isaiah 58:13

“If you keep your feet from breaking the Sabbath and from doing as you please on my holy day, if you call the Sabbath a delight and the Lord’s holy day honorable, and if you honor it by not going your own way and not doing as you please or speaking idle words,

 

The only biblical reference  I found was about the Sabbath...

Is there any way to connect, by context, that John is citing a portion of Isaiah 58:13 in Revelation 1:10?

There is!

The Phrase "the Lord's day" is found in use in the OT, as shown from Isaiah 58:13, etc. John is not making up any novel (new) idea, but the Holy Ghost is inspiring and citing from the OT scriptures, as is done all over Revelation 1. Called an "epanados" or Chiasm:

(1) Isaiah 55:4 --> Revelation 1:5 (Witness)

(2) Daniel 7:13 --> Revelation 1:7 (Coming with Clouds of angels)

(3) Zechariah 12:10-14 --> Revelation 1:7 (Pierced and Wail)

(4) Isaiah 41:4,6 --> Revelation 1:8 (I AM)

(5) Isaiah 58:13 --> Revelation 1:10 (The Lord's day)

(4) Isaiah 41:4,6 --> Revelation 1:11 (I AM)

(3) Zechariah 4:2 --> Revelation 1:12 (Candlestick, Sanctuary, HolyPlace)

(2) Daniel 7:9,13,22 --> Revelation 1:13-15 (Priest)

(1) Isaiah 49:2 --> Revelation 1:16 (Sharp Sword)

Revelation 1:10 is simply citing Isaiah 58:13 in the midst of the parallelism from the OT, which is dead center of the parallelism, in the midst of the "word of God" (Law of God - the 4th commandment) and "the testimony of Jesus", the very Lord of the Sabbath day.

[DignifiedResponse]

Is there any way to show that the Lord's day - the seventh day the Sabbath was made for Jesus, so that it is specifically His Day?

Yes!

Who was the Lord's day, the seventh day the Sabbath made for according to scripture?

There is an Adam at Genesis, but it is really the greater Adam:

Mar_2:27 And he said unto them, The sabbath was made for man, and not man for the sabbath:

 

Mar 2:27  και ελεγεν αυτοις το σαββατον δια τον ανθρωπον εγενετο ουχ ο ανθρωπος δια το σαββατο

 

(literally in koine Greek, "the sabbath for the man made"

Col 1:16 For by him [Jesus] were all things created, that are in heaven, and that are in earth, visible and invisible, whether they be thrones, or dominions, or principalities, or powers: all things were created by him, and for him [Jesus]:

Rom_5:15 But not as the offence, so also is the free gift. For if through the offence of one many be dead, much more the grace of God, and the gift by grace, which is by one man, Jesus Christ, hath abounded unto many.

Rom_5:17 For if by one man's offence death reigned by one; much more they which receive abundance of grace and of the gift of righteousness shall reign in life by one, Jesus Christ.)

1Ti_2:5 For there is one God, and one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus;

1Co 15:45 And so it is written, The first man Adam was made a living soul; the last Adam was made a quickening spirit.

1Co 15:46 Howbeit that was not first which is spiritual, but that which is natural; and afterward that which is spiritual.

1Co 15:47 The first man is of the earth, earthy: the second man is the Lord from heaven.

Did you see who the Lord's day the seventh day the Sabbath was made for?

 

I saw.

 

That is why Jesus could say in Mark 2:27, the He is the Lord also of the sabbath, for it is the Lord's (Jesus') day, made for Him and by Him (And God made ...) at the commandment of the Father (And God said ...) in Genesis 1, as witnessed by the Holy Ghost (And God saw ...).

Edited December 31, 2020 by DignifiedResponse
colourization edit

[DignifiedResponse]

I want to briefly address the reason why I "excluded" the material written long after the Book of Revelation by others that give merely anecdotal evidence, and desired just a study from the scripture itself.

I have found, over and over again, in many places, and at many times, that people attempt to define "the Lord's day", not by scripture, as is proper, but by the so-called "ECF" (Early Church 'Fathers', but I prefer the more accurate term, "easily confused fellows"; of the 1-4th century AD, etc), instead of going back to the real "fathers"; the Patriarchs and Prophets of Scripture themselves, like John, James and Peter and Paul, and even further back unto Abraham, Moses, David, and those like them, and have those "fathers" tell us, as mouthpieces for God. I find them in the inspired and preserved words of God, and I do not find people like spurious Ignatius, imaginary Didache, self-refuting pseudo Barnabas, etc.

These many which rely upon the "ECF" for their foundational definition of "the Lord's day", and for many other things, would actually place those persons, who came in afteryears of Revelation and t he close of the Canon of scripture, above the definition that Jesus gave, by the Holy Ghost/Spirit in scripture.  They might say that they do not do this, but in actual practice, this is what is done.

How can I say that such materials as found in the "ECF" are "spurious", "imaginary" and "self-refuting"?

Consider that evidence:

The writings so often cited to try to define "the Lord's day" outside of scripture, and long after John passed from the scene, are often forged (like Ignatius) and also abused, of which any may see that here (several documented examples) - http://www.pickle-publishing.com/papers/sunday-fraud.htm

The Bible says:

Isa 8:20 To the law and to the testimony: if they speak not according to this word, it is because there is no light in them.

God even warned all that they would "think" to "change times and laws" (of which the 4th Commandment, the 7th day the Sabbath of the LORD is both time and law) of the Most High God:

Dan 7:25 And he shall speak great words against the most High, and shall wear out the saints of the most High, and think to change times and laws: and they shall be given into his hand until a time and times and the dividing of time.

Philip Melanchthon even knew this, and put it into print:

Philip Melanchthon on Daniel 7:25 -

"... But what meaneth the aungell to saye: He shall s•arle or destroye ye hyghe sayn∣tis? verely els but that with his false doctryne capciouse othes articles / & in∣terrogacions he shall fraudelently de∣ceyue and trappe the simple innocents and shed their blode tyrannously. Also he shall arrogantly take vpon him & thin∣ke to change the state of tymes and la∣wes. He weneth to change ye tyme which with swerde and fyer thinketh to shorten the lyfe of man and to preuent and disa∣point gods infallible eternall and immu∣table prouidēce wherby he hath prefiyed euery manis tyme & houre of deth which as noman can differre or prolong it / so cā∣ne noman shorten nor preuent it / except men will make God an ignorant persone and so consequently no god at all. He chā∣geth the tymes and lawes that any of the [page 118-119] sixe worke dayes commanded of god will make them vnholy and idle dayes when he lyste / or of their owne holy dayes abo∣lisshed / make* worke dayes agen / & when they changed ye Saterday into Sondaye / of eting dayes fasting dayes / of mery and glad dayes to marye in / they can make so∣rowfull dayes forbiddinge maryages. They haue changed gods lawes and tur∣ned them into their owne tradiciōs to be kept aboue Gods preceptis. And as for their owne lawes they will change & bre∣ke them when they lyste. And this powr shal anticrist haue whether it be for long or shorte tyme. For so miche sowneth the Hebrew phrase / which is for a tyme / a lyt∣le whyle / & half a tyme / signifyinge that Anticryst shall make lawes to stande as long and as shorte tyme as he listeth and the tymes will he order / sett and change at his owne plesur. But is it not onely ye office of god to chang tymes and lawes? Here is therfore the prophecye fulfylled of him. Euen to exalt himselfe aboue all thing that god is called. This text. But the hyghe saynts he shall tangle trappe & destroye and arrogantly thinke to chan∣ge the tymes and lawes &c. is of diuerse lerned men diuersely translated. ..." - https://quod.lib.umich.edu/e/eebo/A04696.0001.001/1:11?rgn=div1;view=fulltext

 

https://books.google.com/books?id=ua1ZAAAAMAAJ&pg=PA154&dq=Philip+Melanchthon+Danielem+changed+the+saturday+to+Sunday&hl=en&sa=X&ved=0ahUKEwjsrYXI-5PdAhUKslQKHQvLAbAQ6AEIJzAA#v=onepage&q=Philip%20Melanchthon%20Danielem%20changed%20the%20saturday%20to%20Sunday&f=false

 

Looks like William Ambrose Spicer found it way back in 1918 (Page 154. So it has a cleaner English. ) - https://books.google.com/books?id=u...nielem changed the saturday to Sunday&f=false
 

Looks like Stephen Bohr, also has it listed [PDF 175] - http://secretsunsealed.org/content/PDF_downloads/All of Pastor Bohr's Study Notes/BDAN.pdf

Looks like Roy Allen Anderson also has it listed (page 95) - https://books.google.com/books?id=A...ved=0ahUKEwjzyfuA_pPdAhXzwMQHHZZHAyoQ6AEIJzAA

In any case, let us directly notice some of the finagling that goes on just to protect an anecdotal apriori:

'Didache':

The original Greek (Didache 14:1) does not have the word for "day" anywhere in that sentence and secondly, neither is the word "Sunday" present.

"... 1. Κατὰ κυριακὴν δὲ κυρίου συναχθέντες κλάσατε ἄρτον καὶ εὐχαριστήσατε, προεξομολογησάμενοι τὰ παραπτώματα ὑμῶν, ὅπως καθαρὰ ἡ θυσία ὑμῶν ᾐ. ..." - https://www.ccel.org/l/lake/fathers/didache.htm

Where is the word for "day" (hemera)?

 

Where is the word for "Sunday"?

 

Where is the word "first"?

It literally reads, "κυριακὴν δὲ κυρίου" (Lord (belonging to, or ) of Lord).

The translation that most propose to prove Sunday sacredness or that the 'Lord's day' is the first day of the week imaginary in this case.

Two points can be made:

1. The Greek word for "day" does not even appear in the passage. It has been added by the translators.
2. Even if the addition of the word "day" is correct, the passage does not specifically say which day is meant by the Lord's day. It could just as well refer to the Sabbath, since that is the only day the Bible says belongs to the Lord.

 

 

Here is the long form of the citation, since there are several conflicting:

'Ignatius':

 

 

"... For if we still live according to the Jewish law, and the circumcision of the flesh, we deny that we have received grace.—ch. 8.

But let every one of you keep the Sabbath after a spiritual manner, rejoicing in meditation on the law, not in relaxation of the body, admiring the workmanship of God, and not eating things prepared the day before, nor using lukewarm drinks, and walking within a prescribed space, nor finding delight in dancing and plaudits which have no sense in them. And after the observance of the Sabbath, let every friend of Christ keep the Lord's Day as a festival, the resurrection-day, the queen and chief of all the days [of the week].—ch. 9.

It is absurd to speak of Jesus Christ with the tongue, and to cherish in the mind a Judaism which has now come to an end. For where there is Christianity there cannot be Judaism.—ch. 10.

These things [I address to you], my beloved, not that I know any of you to be in such a state; but, as less than any of you, I desire to guard you beforehand, that ye fall not upon the hooks of vain doctrine, but that you may rather attain to a full assurance in Christ . . . .—ch. 11. ..." - http://www.ccel.org/ccel/schaff/anf01.v.iii.ix.html

Let's examine the longer form first, with which the reader will immediately notice a severe problem. The very quote that is supposed to prove that "Christians . . . never [worshipped] on the Sabbath" actually commands "every" Christian to "keep the Sabbath"! Moreover, since the quote also forbids Judaizing, it follows that the writer of the long form of this epistle believed that Sabbath keeping transcended Judiaism. In other words, a Christian could tell people that they needed to keep the Sabbath without being guilty of Judaizing!

The words "and after the observance of the Sabbath" were intentionally deleted from the quote. Another example of fraud?

Now to the other shorter form. The epistles of Ignatius are spurious or forgeries - http://www.bible.ca/history-ignatius-forgeries-250AD.htm or https://depts.drew.edu/jhc/KillenIgnatius.pdf

Amazing, isn't it?, that so many are having to rely upon spurious writings, pseudo-works, which are forgeries.

So far, we have spurious and imaginary.

'Pseudo Barnabas':

According to pseudo-Barnabas (Letter of Barnabas 15:6-8) (ought we to really trust a letter that claims to be from another, didn't Paul warn about such letters being circulated? 2 Thessalonians 2:2) who only mentions "the eighth day" (and not "the Lord's day"), we are too wicked (Christians are too wicked???) at present to keep the 7th day the Sabbath of the LORD, and will not be able to keep it until we are sanctified when Christ returns (so we are going to keep Sabbath again in the New Heavens and New Earth, that doesn't sound like what people use this quote for). Because we are too wicked to keep the Sabbath now, we must keep Sunday instead. What good does this reasoning do for the cause of Sunday sacredness or holiness if we are too wicked?

 

'Justin Martyr':

Any may also see the forgery of Justin Martyr here - https://archive.org/download/sda-william-h-shea-justin-martyr-forgery/SDA - William H Shea - Justin Martyr Forgery.pdf

[DignifiedResponse]

Some have said that "the Lord's day" is simply unique, and that if John (in Revelation 1:10) had meant the seventh day, the  "sabbath" day, he would have written "sabbath".

This 'reasoning' is actually a terrible presumption, based upon a false apriori, about what certain individuals themselves think the Holy Ghost/Spirit ought to have inspired John to write. Beware, that is a very dangerous path to take.

They also say that "sabbath" is always called "sabbath" in the NT.

Is that true?

Actually, No. While the "sabbath" is called "sabbath" in the NT; this being for certain:

Matthew 12:1,2,5,8,10,11,12, 24:20, 28:1;
Mark 1:21, 2:23,24,27,28, 3:2,4, 6:2, 7:6-9, 15:42, 16:1;
Luke 4:16,31, 6:1,2,5,6,7,9, 13:10,14,15,16, 14:1,3,5, 23:54,56;
John 5:9,10,16,18, 7:22,23, 9:14,16, 12:1 (calculated), 19:31;
Acts 1:2, 13:14,27,42,44, 15:21, 16:13, 17:2, 18:4;

Yet, it is also called God's "rest":

Hebrews 3:11,18, 4:1,3,4,5,8,9,10,11

It is also called "the seventh day":

Hebrews 4:4

It is called "the seventh":

Hebrews 4:4

It is also referred to as being "according to the commandment":

Luke 23:56

It is also referred to as the culmination of the 7 day week (two sabbaths coincided in two weeks due to the feast of unleavened  bread that year, being on the 15th and 21st, the 14th (of the month) was the 6th day (of the week),  the Passover, which was the preparation day for two things, preparing to keep Passover and preparing to keep  the seventh day the sabbath the following hours, and the other 6th day was the same preparation to keep the festal final day and the seventh day**):

Matthew 28:1(a) - (Koine Greek) οψε δε σαββατων (Transliterated) oye de sabbatwn
Matthew 28:1(b) - (Koine Greek) εις μιαν σαββατων (Transliterated) eiV mian sabbatwn
Mark 16:2 - (Koine Greek) και λιαν πρωι της μιας σαββατων (Transliterated) kai lian prwi ths mias sabbatwn
Mark 16:9 - (Koine Greek) αναστας δε πρωι πρωτη σαββατου (Transliterated) anastas de prwi prwth sabbatou
Luke 24:1 - (Koine Greek) τη δε μια των σαββατων (Transliterated) th de mia twn sabbatwn
John 20:1 - (Koine Greek) τη δε μια των σαββατων (Transliterated) th de mia twn sabbatwn
John 20:19 - (Koine Greek) τη μια των σαββατων (Transliterated) th mia twn sabbatwn
Acts 20:7 - (Koine Greek) εν δε τη μια των σαββατων (Transliterated) en de th mia twn sabbatwn
1 Corinthians 16:2 - (Koine Greek) κατα μιαν σαββατων (Transliterated) kata mian sabbatwn

It is also referred to as "the day (that is approaching in the week (also the great Cosmic final day, dual use)"

Hebrews 10:25

So when we come to Revelation 1:10, that John chooses by inspiration of the Holy Ghost/Spirit to utilize Isaiah 58:13 (as already shown) and it's phrase "the Lord's day" is only complimenting what the OT itself does in regards the seventh day, for in the OT are as many designations for the seventh day there also, which is where the NT is citing from in all cases, for the NT is built upon the OT texts.  So, all of which terms are also used in the OT, as the OT and NT are in perfect harmony.

 

Notation:

**

[the 7th Day Sabbath of the LORD thy God]

Jesus at Lazarus' house in Bethany [Mt. Olivet], 6 days before passover – [John 12:1]

[the first [day] of the week]

Jesus Triumphal Entry into Jerusalem, "the next day" from leaving Lazarus' house, Hosanna! - [John 12:12,13; Matthew 21:10; Mark 11:11], is lead into Jerusalem by Lazarus (a person being the symbol for the resurrection itself), goes to the Temple, and after looking around, leaves, since it was close to evening back out unto Mt. Olivet.

[the second [day] of the week]

Jesus comes back, curses the fig tree, goes to the Temple, and cleanses the Temple for the Second [last] time of the Money Changers - [Matthew 21:12,13,17; Mark 11:12,15,16,17,19], and Jesus goes back out.

[the third [day] of the week]

Jesus comes back, the Fig tree is withered up from the roots, goes to the Temple, and has the final teachings to the Pharisees, etc - [Matthew 21:18,23; Mark 11:20,27].

This was the "two days" before the "Passover" - [Matthew 26:1-2; Mark 14:1; Luke 21:37-38, 22:1].

Jesus tells the Jewish nation, that their house is forever left desolate, no more fruit again - [Matthew 23:37-39; Luke 13:32-35].

Jesus said, that He still had to do "cures" and "cast out devils" "to day, tomorrow and the third day" and be done - [Luke 13:32,33]

Jesus had been "daily" in the Temple - [Matthew 26:55; Mark 14:49; Luke 19:47, 22:53; John 18:20]

 

The "to day" [Luke 13:32,33]

[the fourth [day] of the week]

The "tomorrow" [Luke 13:32,33]

[the fifth [day] of the week]

The "Third Day" [Luke 13:32,33], being done.

[the sixth [day] of the week; preparation]

Gather twice as much, Christ Jesus the anti-typical Manna, Exodus 16:25,26

The "spices" "had been" [Mark 16;1] purchased sometime after the Crucifixion and before burial so that they could "prepare" [Luke 23:56] them to bring on the "first [day] of the week" [Luke 24:1], even as we see Joseph of Arimathaea doing for the linen - [Mark 14:46]

1st Evening Part - [Matthew 26:31,34; Mark 14:27,30]
1st Morning [Light] Part - [Matthew 27:21; Mark 15:1]


Aviv/Nisan 14th; Christ Jesus our Passover is Sacrificed for us - [1 Corinthians 5:7],

[the 7th Day Sabbath of the LORD thy God]

Jesus remained in the Tomb all Sabbath - anti-type Manna - Exodus 16:29,30

The Disciples were keeping the Sabbath according to the Commandment - [Exodus 20:8-11; Luke 23:54,56]

2nd Evening and 2nd Morning Parts - [Matthew 27:58-66, 28:1; Mark 15:42-47; Luke 23:52-53,54; John 19:38-42]

Aviv/Nisan 15th - Seasonal Feast Sabbath [First Day of Unleavened Bread, without corruption] - [Leviticus 23:5-8]

[the first [day] of the week]

Christ Jesus, preserved and Risen - Anti-type Manna - Exodus 16:32-34

3rd Evening and 3rd Morning Parts, Christ Risen and shown alive - [Matthew 28:1-10; Mark 16:2-20; Luke 24:1-29; John 20:1-23]

Aviv/Nisan 16th; Christ the Firstfruits/Wavesheaf Offering, Anti-Type Resurrection - [1 Corinthians 15:20,23].

Jesus was walking with the disciples on the Road to Emmaus on the "first [day] of the week", as the day was closing out, being "the third day since these things" were done [Luke 24:21],

[the second [day] of the week]

Jesus was still walking with the two disciples on the Road to Emmaus as the first [day] of the week was closing, and it becomes Evening - [Luke 24:29,35, etc]

[Riverwalker]

I think that John, being a Jew would keep to the traditions of calling it the Lord's day. And there is no New Testament allusion to a new meaning

[DignifiedResponse]

13 minutes ago, Riverwalker said:

I think that John, being a Jew would keep to the traditions of calling it the Lord's day. And there is no New Testament allusion to a new meaning

I am inclined to agree, since John was the one disciple/Apostle that seemed to be the closest to Jesus, and young, and was the one that was always asked to be with Jesus, and one of the very first to be called:

Joh 13:23  Now there was leaning on Jesus' bosom one of his disciples, whom Jesus loved.
Joh 13:24  Simon Peter therefore beckoned to him, that he should ask who it should be of whom he spake.
Joh 13:25  He then lying on Jesus' breast saith unto him, Lord, who is it?

John saw the transfiguration of Jesus on the 7th day:

Mat_17:1  And after six days Jesus taketh Peter, James, and John his brother, and bringeth them up into an high mountain apart,

Mar_9:2  And after six days Jesus taketh with him Peter, and James, and John, and leadeth them up into an high mountain apart by themselves: and he was transfigured before them.

Luk_9:28  And it came to pass about an eight days after these sayings, he took Peter and John and James, and went up into a mountain to pray.

[1] "after six days"

[2] "about an eight days after", "about" means not yet that day, but approaches unto that day.

Both of those combined give the limitation, thus between 6 and 8 is 7.  They went up on the 7th Day.  It was on this 7th day that John saw Jesus in Glory, which Peter recounts in 2 Peter 1:16-18, just as on the Isle of Patmos, which is a mountain sticking out of the sea.

2Pe 1:16  For we have not followed cunningly devised fables, when we made known unto you the power and coming of our Lord Jesus Christ, but were eyewitnesses of his majesty.
2Pe 1:17  For he received from God the Father honour and glory, when there came such a voice to him from the excellent glory, This is my beloved Son, in whom I am well pleased.
2Pe 1:18  And this voice which came from heaven we heard, when we were with him in the holy mount.

Mar_5:37  And he suffered no man to follow him, save Peter, and James, and John the brother of James.

Mar_13:3  And as he sat upon the mount of Olives over against the temple, Peter and James and John and Andrew asked him privately,

Mar_14:33  And he taketh with him Peter and James and John, and began to be sore amazed, and to be very heavy;

Luk_8:51  And when he came into the house, he suffered no man to go in, save Peter, and James, and John, and the father and the mother of the maiden.

John was with Jesus at the trials, and at the Cross, and at the burial and saw Jesus resting on the 7th day in the tomb, even as God rested in Creation, having ceased from His "finished" work, he was the one that ran to the tomb:

Joh 18:15  And Simon Peter followed Jesus, and so did another disciple: that disciple was known unto the high priest, and went in with Jesus into the palace of the high priest.

Joh 19:26  When Jesus therefore saw his mother, and the disciple standing by, whom he loved, he saith unto his mother, Woman, behold thy son!
Joh 19:27  Then saith he to the disciple, Behold thy mother! And from that hour that disciple took her unto his own home.

Joh 21:24  This is the disciple which testifieth of these things, and wrote these things: and we know that his testimony is true.

Joh 20:3  Peter therefore went forth, and that other disciple, and came to the sepulchre.
Joh 20:4  So they ran both together: and the other disciple did outrun Peter, and came first to the sepulchre.
Joh 20:5  And he stooping down, and looking in, saw the linen clothes lying; yet went he not in.

Joh 20:8  Then went in also that other disciple, which came first to the sepulchre, and he saw, and believed.

So, John beheld the Lamb, even from the beginning:

Joh 1:29  The next day John seeth Jesus coming unto him, and saith, Behold the Lamb of God, which taketh away the sin of the world.

Joh 1:35  Again the next day after John stood, and two of his disciples;
Joh 1:36  And looking upon Jesus as he walked, he saith, Behold the Lamb of God!
Joh 1:37  And the two disciples heard him speak, and they followed Jesus.

So, out of all this, John, of all people, would know the character of Jesus, and how to follow Jesus in the life, and walk even as He (Jesus) walked, for He beheld the Lamb!

1Jn_2:6  He that saith he abideth in him ought himself also so to walk, even as he walked.

And since John was filled with the Spirit, being "in the Spirit", we can be certain he was keeping the 7th day Holy, as His Lord (Jesus) was even then, and the Gospel itself being intimately related to this day of freedom, of rest from sin, and rest in Him, the 7th day:

Luk 4:14  And Jesus returned in the power of the Spirit into Galilee: and there went out a fame of him through all the region round about.
Luk 4:15  And he taught in their synagogues, being glorified of all.
Luk 4:16  And he came to Nazareth, where he had been brought up: and, as his custom was, he went into the synagogue on the sabbath day, and stood up for to read.
Luk 4:17  And there was delivered unto him the book of the prophet Esaias. And when he had opened the book, he found the place where it was written,
Luk 4:18  The Spirit of the Lord is upon me, because he hath anointed me to preach the gospel to the poor; he hath sent me to heal the brokenhearted, to preach deliverance to the captives, and recovering of sight to the blind, to set at liberty them that are bruised,
Luk 4:19  To preach the acceptable year of the Lord.
Luk 4:20  And he closed the book, and he gave it again to the minister, and sat down. And the eyes of all them that were in the synagogue were fastened on him.
Luk 4:21  And he began to say unto them, This day is this scripture fulfilled in your ears.

[DignifiedResponse]

21 minutes ago, SONshine said:

Greetings . . . .

The "Lord's Day" is the day Christ returns to earth as KING OF KINGS AND LORD OF LORDS.  This is the second advent of Jesus Christ.

And the LORD shall be king over all the earth: in that day shall there be one LORD, and his name one. Zechariah 14:9

Hey there.  The phrase "the Lord's day" is not the same as "the Day of the LORD", or the second Advent.  I have shown that through the following:

On 12/31/2020 at 3:03 AM, DignifiedResponse said:

Some have said that "the Lord's day" of Revelation 1:10 is not any particular day of the week (seventh day or first day), but that it is to represent the eschatological "Day of the LORD", or "Judgment Day", but this is not possible from the context itself.

Revelation says that John while on the Isle of Patmos for (because of_ believing and living according to) the "word of God", and for "the testimony of Jesus Christ" (vss 1,9) was "in the Spirit" (Holy Spirit, which is who gave the vision to John, see vs 4, "the Seven spirits" (7 being the representative number of completeness, and ties into the language of the Sanctuary/Tabernacle/Temple of God as the 7 branch candlesticks, see vss 12,20) "on" (a particular day of the week (either 1,2,3,4,5,6,7) that John was presently experiencing to have been given this vision "the Lord's day".

Another reason that the phrase "the Lord's day" cannot refer to the eschatological "Day of the LORD" is because that which John sees in Revelation 1, does not refer to anything that deals with the eschatological events of "Day of the LORD", except for vs 7, which was yet future to John's day.  John sees and hears 'Jesus' (vss 10-20) this is true, but Jesus is not seen coming in the cloud of glory, but is seen "in the midst of the seven candlesticks" (vs 13), which is in the Holy Place of the Heavenly Temple (Hebrews 8:5; 9:23; Revelation 11:19, 15:5), and even dressed, not as KING of Kings and LORD of Lords (Revelation 19:11-16), but as a HighPriest is dressed (vss 13-15) which means tht Jesus was still then ministering in Heaven, while the Gospel was still going forward that men might be saved.  When Jesus changes garments to being dressed as KING of Kings and LORD of Lords, coming with the clouds (angels) of Heaven in the fullness of glory, the Gospel is no longer effective, and His ministration there in Heaven is over.

Another reason that the phrase "the Lord's day" cannot refer to the eschatological "Day of the LORD" is because John is not merely shown the "future", but as it is said in the very context of Revelation 1 - he is shown the past, present and future:

For instance Revelation 1:7, shows the future coming of Jesus:

Rev 1:7  Behold, he cometh with clouds; and every eye shall see him, and they also which pierced him: and all kindreds of the earth shall wail because of him. Even so, Amen.

Yet that was not all.  Consider:

Rev 1:19  Write the things which thou hast seen, and the things which are, and the things which shall be hereafter;

[1] past - thou hast seen

[2] present - the things which are

[3] future - the things which shall be hereafter

So, John was definitely not "in" or "on" the "Day of the LORD" (which was still future to his own day, and yea even ours), when receiving the vision.

So, just a recap.

[1] Jesus's dress precludes "the Lord's day" from being "the Day of the LORD".

[2] Jesus' location precludes "the Lord's day" from being "the Day of the LORD".

[3] the immediate context of what John was shown precludes "the Lord's day" from being "the Day of the LORD".

Let's consider a fourth reason.  The language itself.

Revelation 1:10:

Rev 1:10  I was in the Spirit on the Lord's day, and heard behind me a great voice, as of a trumpet,

Rev 1:10  εγενομην εν πνευματι εν τη κυριακη ημερα και ηκουσα οπισω μου φωνην μεγαλην ως σαλπιγγος

Rev 1:10  I wasG1096 inG1722 the SpiritG4151 onG1722 theG3588 Lord'sG2960 day,G2250 andG2532 heardG191 behindG3694 meG3450 a greatG3173 voice,G5456 asG5613 of a trumpet,G4536

Rev 1:10  εγενομηνG1096 V-2ADI-1S ενG1722 PREP πνευματιG4151 N-DSN ενG1722 PREP τηG3588 T-DSF κυριακηG2960 A-DSF ημεραG2250 N-DSF καιG2532 CONJ ηκουσαG191 V-AAI-1S οπισωG3694 ADV μουG1473 P-1GS φωνηνG5456 N-ASF μεγαληνG3173 A-ASF ωςG5613 ADV σαλπιγγοςG4536 N-GSF

(in short, I know there are longer koine Greek reasons, but this is just a summary thought)

The word "κυριακη" (translit. "kuriake") is an Adjective - Dative - Singular - Feminine.  This means it is being used as a 'possessive' ("of", see 1 Corinthians 11:20, "the Lord's supper"), which means the "day" in context belongs to "the Lord".  It is literally "the Lord's (belonging to) day".  This means, that the "day" in context is uniquely "the Lord's" out of all the 7 days of the week, for the day under consideration is that which exists within the week, as a day which repeats weekly.  This is extremely important, as those who incorrectly assume it to mean "the first [day] of the week" in lieu of Jesus' resurrection, cannot get a weekly occurrence out of a one-time event, in fulfilment of typology of the Firstfruit/Wavesheaf in Leviticus 23:9-14, as made known in 1 Corinthians 15:20,23.

This is not as the phrase "day of the Lord" (ἡμέρα κυρίου) which is written in the genitive masculine case (see 2 Peter 3:10, etc, and also so called septuaginta uses).
 

In Isaiah 58:13 we read of "the Lord's holy day", which refers to the seventh day of the week, the sabbath of the Lord.

 

In the rest of Isaiah, when he refers, by inspiration of the Holy Ghost, to "the Day of the LORD", it is always in a differing phrase and context. See:

 

Isaiah 2:12, 13:6,9, 34:8

Others say it like this:

"the day of the LORD"

Jeremiah 46:10
Lamentations 2:22
Ezekiel 13:5, 30:3
Joel 1:15, 2:1,11,31, 3:14
Amos 5:18,20
Obadiah 1:15
Zephaniah 1:7,8,14,18, 2:2,3, 14:1
Malachi 4:5
Acts 2:20
1 Corinthians 5:5
2 Corinthians 1:14
1 Thessalonians 5:2
2 Peter 3:10

"the day of their calamity"
Deuteronomy 32:35

"the day of vengeance"
Proverbs 6:34

"the day of the LORD's anger"
Lamentations 2:22

"day of the LORD's vengeance"
Isaiah 34:8

"the day of vengeance of our God"
Isaiah 61:2

"the day of vengeance"
Isaiah 63:4

"the day of the LORD's wrath"
Zephaniah 1:18

"Day of God"
2 Peter 3:12

"great day of God Almighty"
Revelation 16:14

Notice, that even John, when writing elsewhere in the book of Revelation, when referring to "the Day of the LORD", calls it "great day of God Almighty" (Revelation 16:14), and not "the Lord's Day", as in Revelation 1:10.

That is 4 solid contextual reasons to preclude the meaning of "the Lord's day" from being the eschatological "Day of the LORD".

In Latin, we see it similarly used in Exodus 20 (Latin is without the definite article, as Latin does not use definite articles):

Rev 1:10  fui in spiritu in dominica die et audivi post me vocem magnam tamquam tubae

Exo 20:8  memento ut diem sabbati sanctifices

Exo 20:9  sex diebus operaberis et facies omnia opera tua

Exo 20:10  septimo autem die sabbati Domini Dei tui non facies omne opus tu et filius tuus et filia tua servus tuus et ancilla tua iumentum tuum et advena qui est intra portas tuas

Exo 20:11  sex enim diebus fecit Dominus caelum et terram et mare et omnia quae in eis sunt et requievit in die septimo idcirco benedixit Dominus diei sabbati et sanctificavit eum

Which is akin to Genesis' "God's day":

Gen 2:1  igitur perfecti sunt caeli et terra et omnis ornatus eorum

Gen 2:2  conplevitque Deus die septimo opus suum quod fecerat et requievit die septimo ab universo opere quod patrarat

Gen 2:3  et benedixit diei septimo et sanctificavit illum quia in ipso cessaverat ab omni opere suo quod creavit Deus ut faceret

Whereas the differing apocalyptic day, "the day of the Lord" in Latin is "dies Domini" as in Zephaniah 1:14:

Zep 1:14  iuxta est dies Domini magnus iuxta et velox nimis vox diei Domini amara tribulabitur ibi fortis

In Isaiah 58:13, we read of a "day" that "the Lord" specifically calls "my day":

Isa 58:13  If thou turn away thy foot from the sabbath, from doing thy pleasure on my holy day; and call the sabbath a delight, the holy of the LORD, honourable; and shalt honour him, not doing thine own ways, nor finding thine own pleasure, nor speaking thine own words:

In many translations of Isaiah 58:13 we read that the 7th day, the sabbath of the Lord, is said to be "the Lord's holy day", with the word holy being another adjective, while the "Lord's" is possessive. - /Isaiah 58:13 - Bible Gateway

 

Thus when reading Isaiah 58:13 with simple pronoun substitution, it would read "... the ... [Lord's] day ...", just as it does in Exodus 20:8-11.

Exo 20:8  Remember the sabbath day, to keep it holy.

Exo 20:9  Six days shalt thou labour, and do all thy work:

Exo 20:10  But the seventh day is the sabbath of the LORD thy God: in it thou shalt not do any work, thou, nor thy son, nor thy daughter, thy manservant, nor thy maidservant, nor thy cattle, nor thy stranger that is within thy gates:

Exo 20:11  For in six days the LORD made heaven and earth, the sea, and all that in them is, and rested the seventh day: wherefore the LORD blessed the sabbath day, and hallowed it.

In Genesis we see why this day is uniquely "Gods'", or "the Lord's" day, for in it God rested.  This is the reason Jesus could say:

Mat 12:8  For the Son of man is Lord even of the sabbath day.

While the two phrases are related, the first, "the Lord's day" is the weekly 7th day, while "the Day of the LORD" is the final 7th day with God, being 1,000 years long, as per Revelation 20; Isaiah 24, &c.  A picture of that may be seen here:

https://archive.org/download/awhn-bible-7000-years/AWHN - Bible - 7000 Years.jpg

Feel free to see the attached files.

 

 

[DignifiedResponse]

1 hour ago, SONshine said:

I don’t agree, DR.

The Lord's Day, The Day of the Lord, That Day.  The Bible refers to "The Lord's Day" more than 200 times:

Deuteronomy 31:17-18, 1 Samuel 3:12, 8:18, 1 Kings 22:25, 22:35, 2 Chronicles 18:24, 18:34, Job 3:3-4, 21:30, Psalms 110:5, Isaiah 2:11-12, 17, 20,3:7, 3:18, 4:1-2, 5:30, 7:18, 21, 23, 10:20, 27, 32, 11:10-11, 16, 12:1, 4, 13:6, 9, 13, 17:4, 7, 9, 19:18-19,21, 23-24, 20:6, 22:12, 20,25, 23:15, 24:21, 25:9, 26:1, 27:1-2, 12-13, 28:5, 19, 29:18 30:23, 25, 31:7, 34:8, 52:6, 58:5, 61:2, 63:4, 66:8, Jeremiah 1:10, 4:9, 25:33, 30:8, 31:6, 39:17, 49:22, 26, Lamentations 1:12, 2:1, 21-22, Ezekiel 7:7, 12, 19, 13:5, 22:24, 24:27, 27:27, 29:21, 30:3, 9, 18, 38:14, 19, 39:11, 22, 48:35, Hosea 1:5, 11, 2:16, 18, 21, 5:9, 9:5 , Joel Joel 1:15, 2:1-2, 11, 2:31, 3:14, 18, Amos Amos 1:14, 2:16, 3:14, 5:18, 20, 8:3, 9-10, 13, 9:11, Obadiah 1:8, 15, Micah 2:4, 3:6, 4:6, 5:10, 7:11-12, Nahum 3:17, Habakkuk 3:16, Zephaniah 1:7, 8, 9, 10, 14, 15, 16, 18, 2:2-3, 3:8, 11, 16, Zechariah 2:11, 3:9, 10, 9:16, 11:11, 12:3, 4, 6, 8, 9, 12, 13:1, 2, 4, 14:1, 3, 14:4, 6, 7, 8, 9, 13, 20, 21, Malachi 3:2, 17, 4:1, 3, 5, Matthew 7:22, 10:15, 11:22, 24, 12:36, 24:36, 50, 25:13, Mark 6:11,13:32, Luke 6:23, 10:12, 17:24, 30, 31, 21:34, John 6:39, 40, 44, 54, 8:56, 11:24, 14:20, 16:23, 26, Romans 2:5, 16, 13:12, 1 Corinthians 1:8, 3:13, 5:5, 2 Corinthians 1:14, Philippians 1:6, 10, 2:16, 1 Thessalonians 5:2, 4, 2 Thessalonians 1:10, 2:2, 3, 2 Timothy 1:12, 18, 4:8, Hebrews 10:25, James 5:5, 1 Peter 2:12, 2 Peter 2:9, 3:7, 10, 12, 1 John 4:17, Jude 1:6, and Revelation 1:10, 6:17, 16:14, 18:8.

 

Yes, but those references being outside of Revelation 1:10, and its own context, speak of "the day of the Lord" or some variation of it, as already cited.  The context of Revelation 1:10 is not that "day", as shown already.

Even Isaiah distinguishes between "the Lord's holy day", being the seventh day the sabbath in Isaiah 58:13, and the other day, "the day of the Lord", in Isaiah 2:12, 13:6,9, 34:8.

The very structural parallelism that John utilizes, when drawing from the OT texts, for Revelation 1, shows that "the Lord's day" is that which is found in Isaiah 58:13, tied into the context of "the word of God [commandments of God]" and "the testimony of Jesus [the Holy Spirit inspiring the vision]".  John even utilizes the phrase, "great day of God Almighty" in Revelation 16:14, and doesn't use the phrase "the Lord's day" for it.  Even the position of Jesus in Revelation 1 shows this, as well as the garb of Jesus.  The language in the koine Greek of the NT is differing, even as it is in Hebrew in the OT.  Every part of the context is excluding the phrase, "the Lord' day" from being "the Day of the Lord".

So, all those are good references to "the Day of the Lord", but they are not "the Lord's day", as which agrees with Isaiah 58:13, and others already cited.

Disagreement with me, does not produce evidence contrary to what I have presented.

What you have done is, outside of Revelation 1:10, produce a wonderful list that refers to "the day of the Lord" (eschatological).  None of that would be evidence for Revelation 1:10's "the Lord's day" in contrast to what I have provided on it, since I address that very concern, as shown above.

Even the events which are tied into "the day of the Lord" are not found in association with the context of Revelation 1:10.

The verse which does tie into it ("the day of the Lord") is not vs 10 and after, but in verse 7, and is only a single verse which was yet (and still) to be future.

Edited January 2, 2021 by DignifiedResponse