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Posted

It is possible that Jesus’ use of mud inJohn 9was meant to parallel God’s original creation of man: “The LORD God formed the man from the dust of the ground” (Genesis 2:7). In other words, Jesus showed His power as the Creator by imitating the original creation of man: He used the “dust of the ground” to give the man born blind new sight. The creative power of Jesus’ miracle was not lost on the man who was healed: “Since the world began it has been unheard of that anyone opened the eyes of one who was born blind. If this Man were not from God, He could do nothing” (John 9:32-33, NKJV).Read more:http://www.gotquestions.org/Jesus-spit.html#ixzz3fveIpufN

That's the answer. Good find Bopeep...


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Posted

Jesus used the mud because of the Pharisees. It was the Sabbath day and this work would be used to harden their hearts against him and judgement would come upon them. They declared him a sinner based upon their observations of him breaking the Sabbath. Jesus did not need material things to preform supernatural works but he knew their hearts. He knew that sending the blind man to the pool to wash in order to receive sight would put him in a place to testify of the power of God in Christ. Brilliant!

Hi gdemoss,

 

I like that. Marilyn.


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Posted (edited)

Jesus could (and often did) heal at a distance (e.g. Luke 7:1-10; John 4:46-54; Luke 17:11-19). But He didn't always do this.  There were also many occasions when He made physical contact with the sick person, usually by simply touching them or by laying His hands on them (e.g. Mark 7:31-37; Luke 4:40). Using a physical medium, such as putting mud on the eyes of the man born blind, helped the sick person to respond in faith (in this instance, by actually going to a particular place to wash the mud off). Jesus knew, of course, exactly when such 'extra help' was required.

 

I think the point about 'work' on the Sabbath provoking the Pharisees is also a good one. The two explanations aren't mutually exclusive; God likes 'killing two birds with one stone'.

Edited by Deborah_

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Posted

Well I'm glad we got that one figured out because I was seriously thinking of trying it on myself to see if It would correct my vision, and all that probably would've happened would be stingging muddy eyes lol


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Posted

Well I'm glad we got that one figured out because I was seriously thinking of trying it on myself to see if It would correct my vision, and all that probably would've happened would be stingging muddy eyes lol

Here's mud in yer eye! Lol


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Posted

Well I'm glad we got that one figured out because I was seriously thinking of trying it on myself to see if It would correct my vision, and all that probably would've happened would be stingging muddy eyes lol

actually it might work......   when the mud scratches your cornea and you have to have transplants to see at all, there is a good chance your vision might be better.....


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Posted

Well I'm glad we got that one figured out because I was seriously thinking of trying it on myself to see if It would correct my vision, and all that probably would've happened would be stingging muddy eyes lol

actually it might work......   when the mud scratches your cornea and you have to have transplants to see at all, there is a good chance your vision might be better.....
Not funny

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Posted

 

It is possible that Jesus’ use of mud inJohn 9was meant to parallel God’s original creation of man: “The LORD God formed the man from the dust of the ground” (Genesis 2:7). In other words, Jesus showed His power as the Creator by imitating the original creation of man: He used the “dust of the ground” to give the man born blind new sight. The creative power of Jesus’ miracle was not lost on the man who was healed: “Since the world began it has been unheard of that anyone opened the eyes of one who was born blind. If this Man were not from God, He could do nothing” (John 9:32-33, NKJV).Read more:http://www.gotquestions.org/Jesus-spit.html#ixzz3fveIpufN

That's the answer. Good find Bopeep...

 

Thanks Hall  :mgcheerful:


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Posted

Well I'm glad we got that one figured out because I was seriously thinking of trying it on myself to see if It would correct my vision, and all that probably would've happened would be stingging muddy eyes lol

Ummmm.....Hall there is just one slight difference.You are not Jesus  :happyhappy: Ever tried glasses?  glasses.gif


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Posted

Why did Jesus spit?

 

Certainly, Jesus, the divine Son of God, does not need physical props to work miracles. In many cases, Jesus merely spoke, and healing followed (e.g.,Matthew 15:28;Luke 17:12-14). Yet, in three cases, Jesus used His spittle in the process of healing.

One possible reason for Jesus’ use of His saliva has to do with the beliefs of His contemporary culture. Several Roman writers and Jewish rabbis considered saliva to be a valid treatment for blindness. Since the people of that day had a high view of saliva’s healing properties, Jesus used spit to communicate His intention to heal. Those being healed would have naturally interpreted Jesus’ spitting as a sign that they would soon be cured.

Read more:http://www.gotquestions.org/Jesus-spit.html#ixzz3fzYyDDyD

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