WHAT IS THE FALLING AWAY

[Last Daze]

5 hours ago, iamlamad said:

I met a man once that had the whole New Testament and Psalms memorized. Sadly, I don't. I have to search. 
It is OK that you don't believe in dispensations.  They happen anyway. 

I have no problem with searching for a verse.  It's when you treat the scriptures flippantly that I have a problem, like you did here:

It's obvious that you just searched for "dispensation" and posted the results simply because they matched the term.  Those verses have no correlation to the point you were trying to make.  That would have been a warning flag to you if you would have at least taken the time to look up the meaning of the word translated "dispensation".  How can you be taken seriously with practices like that?

[iamlamad]

On 2/22/2018 at 7:27 PM, Last Daze said:

It may seem strange to you but I prefer to use biblical terms.  It helps to keep people from just making stuff up.

The verses you quoted in no way support the idea of a "church age".  The word translated "dispensation" is a stewardship term.  In no sense of the word does it refer to a span of time.  Its like you didn't even try.

Care to try again?  Or can we just agree that "church age" isn't biblical.

 

Sorry, but in fact many English translations use the word Dispensation. Why? Because Paul was DISPENSING or giving out His gospel of grace. In fact, we are still in Paul's gospel of grace. When God gave up on Israel and allowed blindness to come on them while turning to the Gentiles, that began the dispensation of Grace.  Did TIME exist when God turned to the Gentiles? You know it did. TIME still exists. And we are still under Paul's gospel. We will be judged by Paul's gospel. 

Would you rather call it "Paul's age?" "The Gospel age?" It really does not matter what our time is called, scripture tells us it is the time of the Gentiles. 

Roman's 11:11  Again I ask: Did they stumble so as to fall beyond recovery? Not at all! Rather, because of their transgression, salvation has come to the Gentiles to make Israel envious.

Matthew 21:41
"He will bring those wretches to a wretched end," they declared, "and will rent out the vineyard to other tenants who will give him his fruits in their seasons." 

Who are the "other" tenants? They are the Gentile church of which we are a part.

Acts 28:28
Be advised, therefore, that God's salvation has been sent to the Gentiles, and they will listen!"

Are we under the same dispensation as Paul? Is the church still dispensing the same gospel? 

Berean Literal Bible
on that day when God will judge the secrets of men according to my gospel, by Christ Jesus (Rom 2:16)

I conclude that the dispensation that Paul dispensed, HIS GOSPEL is still being dispensed today. But the day will come when the fullness of the Gentiles will have come in, and then God will remove His church to a safe place and bring the 70th week to Israel. 

You, on the other hand, seem to imagine we are today still under the gospel of the kingdom that was preached to the Jews, rather than Paul's gospel that was preached to the Gentiles. 

Edited February 28, 2018 by iamlamad

[Last Daze]

1 hour ago, iamlamad said:

Sorry, but in fact many English translations use the word Dispensation. Why? Because Paul was DISPENSING or giving out His gospel of grace. In fact, we are still in Paul's gospel of grace. When God gave up on Israel and allowed blindness to come on them while turning to the Gentiles, that began the dispensation of Grace.  Did TIME exist when God turned to the Gentiles? You know it did. TIME still exists. And we are still under Paul's gospel. We will be judged by Paul's gospel. 

Would you rather call it "Paul's age?" "The Gospel age?" It really does not matter what our time is called, scripture tells us it is the time of the Gentiles. 

Roman's 11:11  Again I ask: Did they stumble so as to fall beyond recovery? Not at all! Rather, because of their transgression, salvation has come to the Gentiles to make Israel envious.

Matthew 21:41
"He will bring those wretches to a wretched end," they declared, "and will rent out the vineyard to other tenants who will give him his fruits in their seasons." 

Who are the "other" tenants? They are the Gentile church of which we are a part.

Acts 28:28
Be advised, therefore, that God's salvation has been sent to the Gentiles, and they will listen!"

Are we under the same dispensation as Paul? Is the church still dispensing the same gospel? 

Berean Literal Bible
on that day when God will judge the secrets of men according to my gospel, by Christ Jesus (Rom 2:16)

I conclude that the dispensation that Paul dispensed, HIS GOSPEL is still being dispensed today. But the day will come when the fullness of the Gentiles will have come in, and then God will remove His church to a safe place and bring the 70th week to Israel. 

You, on the other hand, seem to imagine we are today still under the gospel of the kingdom that was preached to the Jews, rather than Paul's gospel that was preached to the Gentiles. 

Do what you do.

[inchrist]

16 hours ago, iamlamad said:

.lYou, on the other hand, seem to imagine we are today still under the gospel of the kingdom that was preached to the Jews, rather than Paul's gospel that was preached to the Gentiles. 

What other gospel was there?

[inchrist]

21 hours ago, iamlamad said:

That is why the scripture tells us, "until John..."

The prophesies about Christ until John.

[inchrist]

21 hours ago, iamlamad said:

Call it what you want. Really, "dispensation" is a good word for the change.  The root word is "dispense" meaning to give out. At Mt Sinai, the law was dispensed. 

Hebrews 7:12

For the priesthood being changed, there is made of necessity a change also of the law.

 

 

Only in so far as adding priesthood.

The law existed well before Mt sinai

 

[iamlamad]

6 minutes ago, inchrist said:

Only in so far as adding priesthood.

The law existed well before Mt sinai

 

Paul disagrees with you:

Galatians 3:

¹⁶ Now to Abraham and his seed were the promises made. He saith not, And to seeds, as of many; but as of one, And to thy seed, which is Christ.

¹⁷ And this I say, that the covenant, that was confirmed before of God in Christ, the law, which was four hundred and thirty years after, cannot disannul, that it should make the promise of none effect.

¹⁸ For if the inheritance be of the law, it is no more of promise: but God gave it to Abraham by promise.

[inchrist]

19 minutes ago, iamlamad said:

Paul disagrees with you:

Galatians 3:

¹⁶ Now to Abraham and his seed were the promises made. He saith not, And to seeds, as of many; but as of one, And to thy seed, which is Christ.

¹⁷ And this I say, that the covenant, that was confirmed before of God in Christ, the law, which was four hundred and thirty years after, cannot disannul, that it should make the promise of none effect.

¹⁸ For if the inheritance be of the law, it is no more of promise: but God gave it to Abraham by promise.

¹⁹ Why, then, was the law given at all? It was added because of transgressions

when did transgressions begin?

 

further how did Noah know the law of clean and unclean animals? 

or how did Abraham now the law?

 

Genesis 26:5 King James Version (KJV)

⁵ Because that Abraham obeyed my voice, and kept my charge, my commandments, my statutes, and my laws

Edited March 1, 2018 by inchrist

[RevelationWriter]

"The (Mystery) Of Lawlessness" is falling away.

There is now no more mystery or secret to lawlessness.

Lawlessness is done in the open. The mystery of lawlessness has fallen away.

[Last Daze]

20 hours ago, RevelationWriter said:

"The (Mystery) Of Lawlessness" is falling away.

There is now no more mystery or secret to lawlessness.

Lawlessness is done in the open. The mystery of lawlessness has fallen away.

There is a whole lot of lawlessness that goes on in the spiritual realm; and how it influences the natural realm is still quite a mystery.