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Posted

 

Shalom, Montana Marv.

 

 

Be warned brethren about those like lamad...

 

Here's the Scripture in 1 Thess.4 that he intentionally... left out!!!

 

1 Thess.4

13 But I would not have you to be ignorant, brethren, concerning them which are asleep, that ye sorrow not, even as others which have no hope.

14 For if we believe that Jesus died and rose again, even so them also which sleep in Jesus will God bring with Him.

15 For this we say unto you by the word of the Lord, that we which are alive and remain unto the coming of the Lord shall not prevent them which are asleep.

16 For the Lord Himself shall descend from heaven with a shout, with the voice of the archangel, and with the trump of God: and the dead in Christ shall rise first:

17 Then we which are alive and remain shall be caught up together with them in the clouds, to meet the Lord in the air: and so shall we ever be with the Lord.

 

Note especially those underlined phrases...

 

"God bring with Him"

 

"the coming of the Lord"

 

"the Lord Himself shall descend"

 

 

A foreigner who doesn't speak nor understand English very well could get mixed up by that, but someone who's primary language is English, how can they get mixed up by those phrases Apostle Paul gave about Christ's coming, descending TO THIS EARTH?

 

Acts 1

10 And while they looked stedfastly toward heaven as He went up, behold, two men stood by them in white apparel;

11 Which also said, "Ye men of Galilee, why stand ye gazing up into heaven? This same Jesus, Which is taken up from you into heaven, shall so come in like manner as ye have seen Him go into heaven."

12 Then returned they unto Jerusalem from the mount called Olivet, which is from Jerusalem a sabbath day's journey.

 

 

Zech.14

And His feet shall stand in that day upon the mount of Olives, which is before Jerusalem on the east, and the mount of Olives shall cleave in the midst thereof toward the east and toward the west, and there shall be a very great valley; and half of the mountain shall remove toward the north, and half of it toward the south.

And ye shall flee to the valley of the mountains; for the valley of the mountains shall reach unto Azal: yea, ye shall flee, like as ye fled from before the earthquake in the days of Uzziah king of Judah: and the Lord my God shall come, and all the saints with Thee.

 

 

Those Scriptures of course, are what those like Lamad doesn't want you to read and understand. Jesus when He comes, sets foot upon the Mount of Olives east of Jerusalem, on earth, when He 'descends' back to the spot on earth where He ascended to Heaven from, bringing the "asleep" saints with Him when He comes, and then gathers His alive saints on earth, and they all then go to Jerusalem, on earth, not up in Heaven to live. The "mansions" of John 14 mean 'abodes' per the Greek, and they are described in the Ezekiel temple layout in the area of Jerusalem when the Millennial temple is established there for Christ's "thousand years" reign with His elect.

Salty

 

Maybe we should warn about you.

 

None of the verses you quoted in 1 Thes. says Christ is setting His Feet on the Mt of Olives.  Only that He descends so we can meet Him in the Air.  This is not a Second Coming verse.  The Rapture is a retrieval, not the Second Coming.  Yet when the Second Coming does occur, the angels will do the gathering.  from the four winds (those still on earth), and from one end of heaven to the other (Those previously Raptured) . Yet with the Rapture, Christ does the gathering.

 

In Christ

Montana Marv

 

 

And, maybe we should warn about you, too? Nowhere does it say that "from one end of heaven to the other" implies "those previously Raptured!"

 

Assumption! Assumption!

What's your function?

Hookin' up ideas and

makin' 'em "unction!"

 

(sung to the tune of "Conjunction Junction" on Schoolhouse Rock)

 

Remember when I said that "heaven" means the "sky?" Well, it does in Matthew 24:31, too.

 

Remember the Achilles' heel of Khan in the old "Wrath of Khan" Star Trek movie? According to Spock, he was "showing a pattern of two-dimensional thinking." This is often OUR problem, as well. We tend to forget that we live in a three-dimensional world (length, width, and DEPTH, with a fourth dimension of time thrown in for good measure). So, the four winds, that we call the four compass directions, are measurements of length and width, but the measurement of "one end of the sky to the other" is DEPTH (that we commonly refer to as "height" from our perspective). Consider the way that Mark says the same thing:

 

Mark 13:27

27 And then shall he send his angels, and shall gather together his elect from the four winds, from the uttermost part of the earth to the uttermost part of heaven (Greek: ouranou = "of the sky").
KJV
 
This portion of the Olivet Discourse says NOTHING about "those previously Raptured!"

 

Roy

 

RE:  Matt 24:31 ;; Those elect from one end of heaven to the other.  Who is there then in heaven who could be considered the "elect".  And the gathering is by angels.  Now with 1 Thes 4:16-18;  It is Jesus who comes down from Heaven to gather these "elect"

 

I really don't care if you interpret Heaven as the sky.  Is the Fathers House in the sky.  Is Gods abode in the sky.  Or is the Whole Universe just a portion of sky/Heaven.  Or as you may put it; the Whole Universe is located in the "sky".

 

In Christ

Montana Marv


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Posted

In Christ

 

You need to edit your post # 106.  Christ died on Golgotha which is West of the Temple.

 

In Christ

Montana Marv


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Posted

This is a warning to everyone.  There can be no personal insults or attacks per ToS.  If they continue, those who do so will be banned from the thread.


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Posted

In Christ

 

Matt 27:33 - They came to the place called Golgotha, which means The Place of the Skull. v 35 - When they had crucified him, they divided his clothes.  Luke 23:33 - When they came to the place called the Skull, there they crucified him,   John 19:17,18 - Carrying his own cross, he went out to the place of the Skull (which in Aramaic is called Golgotha). Here they crucified him.

 

Oh by the way did the two thief's rob people at Golgotha.  They also died with Christ.

 

When does Rev 10:1-7 take place in the prophetic time table?

 

In Christ

Montana Marv


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Posted (edited)

Response to the OP:

 

Briefly ...........

 

The 70 weeks of years are 70 Jewish heptads [1 week of 360 day years]] for a total of 490 years for Daniel's people Israel

 

This allotted time lapse began in 457 BC with the Persian decree to return from the Babylonian captivity to re-build the city of Jerusalem

 

One needs to convert from the Julian calendar to the 360 day year and 30 day month with adjustment for leap years to arrive at the Lord's cutting off in 33 AD [the end of 483 years of the time lapse]

 

It is essential to then know the following:

 

All of the prophets then become silent and do not resume until the 70th week begins which is still pending at this time .... the Lord has not revealed the dating of the beginning of the same

 

The Lord [the Messiah Prince] is the one who confirms the covenant that He has with a believing remnant part His national people of Israel during the coming 70th week and all 6 objectives will be met for the "many'

 

It is the other prince and his followers that will come to desecrate by invading and occupying Israel, Jerusalem, and the temple mount in the Middle of the 70th week .... the occupation and desecrations will last for 1260 days [42 months]

 

The 70th week will run for a total of  2520 [1260 +1260] days and the Battle of Armageddon will occur in the next 30 days

 

Then the Lord will appear on the earth and gather all of the mortal survivors of the tribulation [the time of Jacob's trouble} in the next 45 days, first of Israel, and then of the Gentiles of the nations and He will separate them

 

Those found believing will enter and populate His millennial kingdom upon the earth .... those found in unbelief will be rejected

 

Some of the posters on this thread seem to know some of this already, however, I will give supporting scriptures if anyone wants them

 

 

 

 

,

Edited by Zechariah 14

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Posted (edited)

 

I'm afraid Yeshua is lessor than YEHOVAH. ..It's exactly what Yeshua was preaching, that His Father is greater see John 14:28 for example.

 

 

I'm afraid that isn't so, for  The Father is not YEHOVAH.   Yeshua is.   But he was lessor when he was in the flesh than he was when he was as God......   but it was his choice to do so.

Take into consideration that the term God is not a name but a relationship title concerning people.   My god, can be anything from myself to money or any number of fallen angel entities that pagans have, to the real creators we call the trinity.....   and at our discretion we use a capitol "G" for God when speaking of any of the three.

 

 

The book of Exodus tells us that Moses, Aaron, two other people that I can't remember their names off hand and 70 of the elders of Israel went up and saw the God of Israel  (Yehovah).........    Jesus tells us that no one has seen the Father....

 

When Moses talked with God and asked him his name he told him to tell the Hebrews that "I AM" sent him.     When the Jews were questioning him he made the comment that before Abraham was, I AM..     I don't consider this as a slip of the tongue.

 

John tells us that before Jesus became flesh he was in the form of God.....    Also it states that all things came from the Father, through the Son.

Jesus was the hands on creator of all things, from the Father.   It also states he did not consider it something to grasp being equal with the Father, so I assume that he was considered equal before he became flesh.

 

Right now Jesus and the Father are equals, but because the Father gave all power and authority to him.....   but not over the Father.   Later when all things have been put under his feet, Jesus will then submit himself to the father......    

 

I'd have to look up some of the scripture for this, but it is all there.     You are correct that Jesus was lesser than the Father when he was alive on earth, but that is not the case as of his resurrection......

Edited by other one

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Posted

Shalom, inchrist and Marilyn C.

 

 

Hi inchrist,
 
Some good work there. I do agree on most points. I think you misunderstood what I said. Perhaps you could read it again. Maybe I didn`t come over as I thought. here is what I wrote -

`You are right that the LORD God, Jehovah, (Yehovah) is a different word than the Lord Jesus Christ, (Yeshua). Also as your point out they are 2 distinct entities. However as we well know this is what tricked the Pharisees. They could only comprehend God as one entity. However we know that the revelation of God in the Old Testament is of 3 persons, (entities) with the Lord Jesus, as one of these.
Thus the amazing revealing of Christ as the angel who swore by Him who lives forever, is our Lord swaring by Himself, the Father & the Holy Spirit - the Godhead. Father God is the One who is the seat of authority but it in no way makes Christ lesser. The scripture in Deut. when matched with Rev. 10, only goes to show that Jesus is God, as the Father & the Spirit are.`

 
 
Also I believe that when the temple veil was torn in two, at Jesus` death, then no shekinah glory would be still dwelling there. However if you have something to share I will listen to you.

I'm afraid Yeshua is lessor than YEHOVAH. ..It's exactly what Yeshua was preaching, that His Father is greater see John 14:28 for example.

Also, if we examine the original Greek for "King of kings and Lord of lords" we will quickly discover that the first "King" and the first "Lord" in this title both start with upper case letters -- showing Him to be the ULTIMATE "King" of all kings and the ULTIMATE "Lord" of all lords. Some argue that the Lamb (the Messiah) depicted in Revelation 17:14 also has these titles and must, as a result, be the Rider of the horse represented in Revelation 19. But, once again, if we closely examine the original Greek we will first of all find that the title is REVERSED from that in Revelation 19 and reads instead "lord of lords and king of kings." Then we will notice that the first "lord" and the first "king" of the title are lower case in the Greek -- showing that the Messiah was (as pictured here in Revelation 17:14) NOT the ultimate "lord of lords" or the ultimate "king of kings." He is a LOWER "lord of lords" and "king of kings," which entirely agrees with Yeshua's statement that his Father was greater than he.

Dealing with the Temple and YEHOVAH shekinah glory still present up to 66AD

In Eusebius' book Proof of the Gospel we find this passage --

"Believers in Christ congregate from all parts of the world, not as of old time because of the glory of Jerusalem, nor that they may worship in the ancient Temple at Jerusalem, but...that they may worship at the Mount of Olives opposite to the city, whither the glory [the Shekinah Glory] of the LORD [YEHOVAH, YHVH]migrated when it left the former city" (Book VI, Chapter 18 (288)).

According to Eusebius the "Shekinah" Glory left the Temple and hovered over the Mount of Olives during "the siege of Jerusalem" (66 A.D. to 70). However, Eusebius was not the only observer who mentioned that the "Shekinah" Glory left the Temple before the destruction of the Temple and hovered over the Mount of Olives. A Jewish rabbi named Jonathan -- who was an eyewitness to the destruction of Jerusalem -- said the "Shekinah" Glory left the Temple and for three and a half years

"abode on the MOUNT OF OLIVES hoping that Israel would repent, but they did not; while aBet Kol [a supernatural voice from heaven] issued forth announcing, Return, O backsliding children [Jer. 3:14]. Return unto Me, and I will return unto you [Mal. 3:7], when they did not repent, it said, I WILL RETURN TO MY PLACE [Hosea 5:15] (Midrash Rabbah, Lamentations 2:11)" (Secrets of Golgotha, by Ernest L. Martin. p. 84).

There was yet another writer who recorded the fact of the "Shekinah" presence of YEHOVAH God moving from the Temple in Jerusalem just before the war with the Romans. Josephus mentioned that in the Spring of 66 A.D. some astonishing events took place within the Temple. He recorded three miracles associated with YEHOVAH's "Shekinah" and the Temple -- and each one showed clearly that the "Shekinah" was departing from the Holy of Holies. In War VI, 290 he stated "that a GREAT LIGHT shone over the altar for thirty minutes at 3 o'clock in the morning (a week before Passover in A.D. 66) and then it DEPARTED

More clues in the accounts of Herod

The first-century A.D. Jewish historian and priest Josephus, records that "at this time he [Herod] opened the sepulcher by night, and went into it, and endeavored that it should not be known in the city, but took only his faithful friends with him" (Antiquities 14.7.1).

Then begins the most unusual account of all. Herod was determined to explore the multi-room structure of David's tomb to the limits. Suddenly, a great miracle occurred --

"However, he [Herod] had a great desire to make a more diligent search, and to go further in, even as far as the very bodies of David and Solomon; WHERE TWO OF HIS GUARDS WERE SLAIN BY A FLAME that burst out upon those that went in, as the report was. So he was terribly affrightened, and went out, and built a propitiatory monument of that fright he had been in; and this of white stone, at the mouth of the sepulcher..." (Antiquities 14.7.1).

The physical "Shekinah" put the fear of God in Herod and his surviving men and, frankly, "scared the hell" out of them!

Lastly Yeshua's prophecy

"O Jerusalem, Jerusalem, you who kill the prophets, and STONE them which are sent to you, how often would I have gathered your children together, even as a hen gathers her chickens under her wings, and you would not! BEHOLD, YOUR HOUSE [TEMPLE] IS LEFT TO YOU DESOLATE" (Matthew 23:37-38).

 

 

Folks, "shekinah" does NOT mean "glory." "Kaavowd" means "glory"; as in "Iy-kaavowd" ("Ichabod") means "no glory" or the "glory has departed." "Shekinah" means "PRESENCE." 


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Posted

Good thoughts & true, other one regarding Christ equal in the Godhead.

 

inchrist,

 

You say that Jesus is lesser than Father God, whereas God`s word tells us differently.

 

Now only Deity can reveal Deity, only God can express Godhead, & only sonship can manifest fatherhood, because the very soul of sonship is likeness of will. When the Jews demanded an explicit sign to verify the saviour`s claim to divine sonship, He replied in the clearest manner & in the most conclusive terms possible.

 

`I came down from heaven, not to do Mine own will, but the will of Him that sent Me. And this is the Father`s will which has sent Me.`  (John 6: 38 & 39)

 

 

The Apostle John records the reality of this revealed relationship by recounting the unanimity, equality & unity that were consistently apparent in the life & ministry of the Saviour.

 

 

Unanimity: As speech expresses the mind, so the Son as the word reveals the Father. `For He whom God has sent speaks the words of God.` (John 3: 34)

 

Equality: `My Father is working until now, & I Myself am working.` (John 5: 17) Those that heard this statement perceived what it meant, for they said, `He makes Himself equal with God.` (John 5: 21)

 

Unity: `I and Father are One.` (John 10: 30)


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Posted

Thanks Retrobyter for the explanation of those words.


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Posted

Hi inchrist,

 

Your last post #120 absolutely amazed me! I didn`t know there was a `mental,` (as in mind) gymnasium on Worthy. :happyhappy:

 

But seriously - Do you just believe that Jesus was a good man? Wouldn`t he then have inherited Adam`s sinful nature?

 

And why didn`t God just use Enoch to die for mankind? That would have saved a lot of pain & heartache, plus we then would all now be like Adam & Eve was before the fall.

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